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MockTime.com (d) 1432

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. In which sea, Gotland Deep, an anoxic basin is found? (a) Mediterranean sea (b) Caspian sea (c) Black sea (d) Baltic sea Q2. In which one of the following biogeographically regions, the biodiversity hotspot, Caribbean Islands is found? (a) Africa (b) North and Central America (c) South America (d) Europe and Central Asia Q3. The removal of ginseng growing in the Great Smoky Mountain National Park is an example of (a) Stealing (b) Plant rustling (c) Theft (d) Plant poaching Q4. The IUCN lists the dugong as a species especially vulnerable to extinction because of: 1.Long.life span of 70 years or more, and slow rate of reproduction. 2.Hunting 3.Habitat degradation 4Fishing related fatalities The correct response is: (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 only (c) 1,2,3 (d) 2,3,4 Q5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. List I - List II (Mineral) – ( Industries in which largely used) A. Limestone - 1 Cement B. Copper - 2 Electrical goods C. Bauxite - 3 M anufacture of aeroplanes D. Manganese - 4 Steel Codes A B C D (a) 3412 (b) 1234 (c) 3214

Q6. What is the Jeweller's rouge? (a) Ferric oxide (b) Ferrous oxide (c) Ferrous carbonate (d) Ferric carbonate Q7. Which one of the following when dissolved in H2O gives hissing sound? (a) Limestone (b) Slaked lime (c) Sodalime (d) Quicklime Q8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. List I List II Item (Toxic substance) A. CFL lamp1 Nitrogen oxides B. Automobile battery2 Phthalates C. Polymer3 Lead D. Diesel engine4 Mercury Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4231 (b) 4321 (c) 1234 (d) 1324 Q9. Heavy water implies (a) water which is used in heavy industri es such as thermal power plants (b) water which contains SO42- and CI– of calcium and magnesium (c) deuterated water (d) water which has maximum density Q10. Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to (a) decrease the rate of setting of cement (b) bind the particles of calcium silicate (c) facilitate the formation of colloidal gel (d) impart strength to cement Q11. Statement I: All compounds contain more than one element. Statement II: All compounds are heterogeneous mixtures. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

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(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q12. NaOH + HC1 -> NaCl + H20 in the given chemical reaction (a) sodium is oxidised and oxygen is reduced (b) sodium is oxidised and chlorine is reduced (c) sodium and hydrogen are oxidised (d) None of them are oxidised or reduced Q13. The main constituent of Gobar gas is (a) Ethane (b) Methane (c) Propane (d) Acetylene Q14. Which one among the following metals is prominently used in mobile phone batteries? (a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Nickel (d) Lithium Q15. A colloidal sol is a (a) true solution (b) suspension (c) heterogeneous sol (d) homogeneous sol Q16. Consider the following statements about the element potassium. 1.It does not exist in the free state in nature 2.It is highly reactive. 3.It is an important enzyme activator and plays a crucial role in nerve action and cardiac function. 4.It is required in the cell glucose metabolism and protein synthesis The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 only (b) land 3 only (c) 1,2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2 and 3 only Q17. Which one of the following Indian scientists was elected as a fellow of the Royal Society of London for his contribution in the field of Plant Physiology and Physics? (a) Ashutosh Mukherjee (b) Jagdish Chandra Bose (c) Prafulla Chandra Ray (d) P C Mahalanodis

MockTime.com Q18. By which one of the following, an old written material which cannot be read easily, can be read (a) y-rays (b) X-rays (c) IR-rays (d) Radiofrequency waves Q19. The pressure exerted on the ground by a man is greatest (a) when the lies down in the ground (b) when the stands on the toes of one foot (c) when the stands with both foot flat on the ground (d) all of the above yield the same pressure

Q20. When a ball drops onto the floor it bounces. Why does it bounce? (a) Newton's third law implies that for every action (drop) there is a reaction (bounce) (b) The floor exerts a force on the ball during the impact (c) The floor is perfectly rigid (d) The floor heats up on impact Q21. It is difficult to cut things with a blunt knife because (a) the pressure exerted by knife for a given force increases with increase in bluntness (b) a sharp edge decreases the pressure exerted by knife for a given force (c) a blunt knife decreases the pressure for a given force (d) a blunt knife decreases the area of intersection Q22. A ray of white light strikes the surface of an object. If all the colours are reflected the surface would appear (a) black (b) white (c) grey (d) opaque Q23. Carbon or Graphite rods are used in atomic reactors as moderators for sustained nuclear chain reaction through nuclear fission process. In this process (a) the neutrons are made fast (b) the protons are made fast (c) the neutrons are made slow

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(d) the protons are made slow Q24. A positron is an elementary particle 1.Having mass equal to that of an electron 2.With a charge equal and opposite to that of an electron 3.With a charge equal to that of a proton 4.Having mass equal to that of a proton Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Q25. All the colours on a TV screen are produced from (a) Red, green and blue (b) Red, yellow, orange and blue (c) Blue, green and yellow (d) Violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red Q26. Consider the following statements: 1.When a red rose is illuminated with red light, its leaves become warmer than the petals. 2.The energy of red light is absorbed by the leaves. Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Both (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q27. Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because (a) Barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach on account of its transparency to Xrays (b) Barium compound, like magnesium sulphate helps in cleaning the stomach before X-ray examination (c) Barium is a good absorber of X-rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture (d) Barium salts are white in colour and this helps the stomach to appear clear in contrast with other regions in the picture Q28. The working of which of the following may be explained wholly or partially using Newton‘s third law of motion 1.Hovercraft 2.Helicopter 3.Rocket

MockTime.com 4.Lawn Sprinkler (a) 1,2,3 (b) 1,3,4 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2,3,4 Q29. Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee? (a) Demands for Grants Committee (b) Committee on Public Accounts (c) Committee on Public Undertakings (d) Committee on Esti mates Q30. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the sates? (a) Fifth (b) Sixth (c) Seventh (d) Eigth Q31. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of the following place s? (a) Nagpur (b) Panaji (c) Pune (d) Aurangabad Q32. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (a) The Public Accounts Committee (b) The Estimates Committee (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings (d) The Committee on Petitions Q33. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? (a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association (b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of India (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business (d) Right to constitutional remedies Q34. DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos.): The following questions are based on the following passage. Civil society has become the leitmotif of movements struggling to free themselves from unresponsive and often tyrannical post colonial elites. If the first wave of liberation took place along with decolonisation, the second wave comes up against those very elites who had taken power after decolonisation. I see the beginning of an

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authentic civil society in the voice of those outside the ambit of norms laid down by the state-ecology, gender, class-in the resistance of those who refuse to let the state site its projects wherever it places, in the voice of those who reject corrupt elites in the political passions of those whose nerves are not numbed by consumer capitalism, in the letters to the newspapers, in oral communication. These are people who do not opt out of civil society, but who demand that the state deliver what it has promised in the Constitution and the law, who demand State accountability, who expand the sphere of rights to encompass those which has arisen out of the struggles of the people. W hat are the demands not generated by people's struggle? (a) Good delivery of public services (b) Rule of law (c) State accountability (d) Uniform civil code Q35. The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that (a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes (b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes (c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each (d) MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of votes Q36. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of Parliament? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

MockTime.com 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) Extent of Executive Power of State (d) Conduct of business of the Govern ment of India Q39. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the committee? 1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas. 2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of Asom. 3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas. 4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4 Q40. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath of office by (a) the Chief Justice of the High Court (b) the Governor of the State (c) the President of India (d) the Chief Justice of India

Q37. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period (a) not exceeding three months (b) not exceedng nine-months (c) of one year at a time (d) of two years at a time

Q41. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognising a parliamentary party or group? 1. An association of members who have an organisation both inside and outside the House 2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House 3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Onfy 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

Q38. The Instrument of Instructions contained in the Goverment of India Act,

Q42. Which among the following about the Rangarajan Panel Report on poverty

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estimation (submitted in July, 2014) is/ are correct? 1. The report states that three out of ten people in India are poor 2. The report endorsed the Tendulkar committee suggestion on determining poverty line in India Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q43. The National Human Rights Commission is a : (a) Constitutional body (b) Extra-constitutional body (c) Statutory body (d) The result of Cabinet‘s resolution Q44. The following is the head who looks after the welfare of the Persons with Disabilities: (a) Commissioner (b) Director (c) Director-General (d) Chief Commissioner Q45. Consider the following Enzymes and protein can be corelated with each other in the following ways 1.All proteins are enzyme. 2. All enzymes are protein. 3.All enzymes are not protein. 4.All proteins are not enzyme. Which of the above are correct? (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and4 (c) 1,2 and3 (d) 2,3 and4 Q46. Which one of the following is not an insect borne disease? (a) Beri-beri (b) Kala-azar (c) Malaria (d) Plague Q47. Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible source of protein? (a) Egg albumin (b) Soyabean (c) Fish flesh (d) Red meat Q48. Match the following

MockTime.com List I(Medicinal Product) Lis t - II (S ource) A. Quinine -1.Poppy plant B. M orphine -2. Bacterium C. Penicillin -3.Cinchona bark D. Tetracycline -4.Fungus Codes A B C D ? (a) 3412 (b) 2314 (c) 3142 (d) 2134 Q49. Anaemia is a common health problem especially in women. Which one of the following deficiencies is most frequently responsible for anaemia in India? (a) Calcium (b) Iron (c) Iodine (d) Zinc Q50. Tips of leaves in grasses and common garden plants show water drops in early morning hours. This water accumulation is obtained from (a) atmosphere (b) stomata (c) vascular bundles (d) hydathodes Q51. Human body's main organ of balance is located in (a) inner part of ear (b) middle part of ear (c) front part of brain (d) top part of vertebral column Q52. White blood cells act (a) as a defence against infection (b) as source of energy (c) as a clotting agent (d) as a medium for oxygen transport from lungs to tissues Q53. Which one among the following will be absorbed fastest through the wall of digestive system? (a) Black coffee as a hot beverage (b) DDT taken as a poison (c) Raw alcohol taken as a drink (d) Ice-cream as a desert Q54. Vaseline was applied to both surfaces of the leaves of a plant. Which of the following process/ processes would be affected? 1.Photosynthesis 2. Respiration

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3.Transpiration Select the correct answer using the codesgiven below (a) 1 and3 (b) Only2 (c) 2 and3 (d) All of these Q55. Which one among the following is the generic name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis? (a) Filaria (b) Microfilaria (c) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) Culex pipiens Q56. Consider the following statements in respect of thyroid gland. 1.It is situated in the neck. 2. It is vital to maintain of normal body temperature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q57. Consider the following statements 1. The current Economic Census is the seventh in the series so far conducted in India. 2. The Economic Census in India is undertaken by the Department of Economic Affairs (Union Ministry of Finance). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q58. India's market regulator SEBI is on course to relax investment norms for sovereign wealth funds, the investment vehicles which are directly controlled by the government of a country. The main reason behind this move is (a) the desire of the Government of India to attract more foreign investment (b) pressure by foreign Governments on India to execute specific mutual agreements on financial services. (c) SEBI's desire to create a more level playing field for foreign investors (d) RBI's relevant directives to SEBI

MockTime.com Q59. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year 2011 was due to 1. flight to safety by foreign investors. 2. meltdown in European markets. 3. inflation in emerging market economies: 4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q60. In a perfectly competitive economy production and consumption will both be Pareto optimal, if the economy operates at a point where (a) there is general equilibrium (b) output levels are below equilibrium (c) output levels are above equilibrium (d) consumption is less than output Q61. MONEX is associated with (a) Montreal experiment (b) Monetary experiment (c) Lunar experiment (d) Monsoon experiment Q62. Which of the following is not the recommendation of the Arvind Mayaram Committee on Rationalizing the FDI/FPI definition (June 2014)? (a) Foreign investment of 10 per cent or more in a listed company will be treated as foreign direct investment (FDI) (b) In a particular company, an investor can hold the investments either under the FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment) route or under the FDI route, but not both (c) Any investment by way of equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares debentures which is less than 10 per cent of the post issue paid up equity capital of a company shall be treated as FPI (d) On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating non-repatriable invesnnent as FDI Q63. Which country had the largest share of FDI in India during the decade? (a) Mauritius (b) USA (c) Japan (d) UK

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Q64. Identify one area which has not been listed as a National Thrust Area by the Investment Commission for enhancing growth (a) Pharmaceuticals (b) Tourism (c) Textiles (d) Agro-processing Q65. Which of the following is not a component of the Rashtriya Sam Vikas Yojana launched under the 10th Plan? (a) Special plan for Bihar y (b) Aravalli Development Scheme (c) Special plan for the KBK districts of Orissa (d) Backward district initiative Q66. Structural adjustment is supposed to affect the poor and the weaker sections. Which of the following causes is not one of the reasons for the increasing misery of the poor consequent on the implementation of structural reforms? (a) Most of the new jobs created were in the urban sector. (b) There was a sharp fall in government expenditure. (c) Subsidies on food grains were slashed (d) illegal wages of unskilled workers increased. Q67. Which of the following agencies does not finance local bodies for infrastructural development? (a) LIC (b) HUDCO (c) CRISIL (d) ILFS Q68. It is said that, in order to control inflation, foreign inflow needs to be sterilised. Sterilisation here refers to (a) ensuring that black money is accounted for (b) compliance with import export regulations (c) ensuring that counterfeit currency does not enter circulation (d) withdrawing equivalent local currency to maintain a desirable rate of exchange Q69. Among the following which Mughal Emperor introduced the policy of Sulh-i-kul? (a) Babar (b) Humayun (c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan

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Q70. Who among the following was the Viceroy of India at the time of the formation of Indian National Congress? (a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Ripon (c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Lansdowne Q71. What is the correct sequence of the following events? 1. Rowlatt Act 2. Gandhi-lrwin Pact 3. Morley-Minto Reforms 4. Illbert Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 Q72. Consider the following statements relating to Sher Shah 1. During Sher Shah‘s region, the village Panchayat and Zamindars were not allowed to deal with civil and criminal cases at the local level. 2. Sher Shah set-up army cantonments in different parts of the empire and a strong garrison was posted in each of them. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q73. October 26, 1947 is an important date in the Indian history, because of (a) Maharaja Hari Singh‘s signing on Instrument of Accession (b) ceasefire with Pakistan (c) merger of Sind (d) declaration of war over India by Pakistan Q74. Consider the following statements relating to Indigo Revolt 1. The Indigo Revolt is particularly memorable for the role played by the intelligentsia to uphold the cause of the movement.

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2. After the revolt, the colonial authorities set-up the Indigo Commission to enquire into the grievances of the Indigo cultivators. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q75. Which one among the following was part of Gandhi-lrwin Agreement of 1931? (a) Stern action against policemen guilty of brutal assault on Satyagrahis (b) Nehru to represent Congress at the Round Table Conference of 1931 (c) Deletion of communal question from the agenda of the conference (d) Release of political prisoners excepting those guilty of arson and violence Q76. Which one among the following was the result of the First Anglo-Maratha War of 1775–1982? (a) The British won the war (b) The Marathas won the war (c) There was no victory for either side (d) It helped Haider Ali to gather strength because the British and Marathas were engaged in a mutual war Q77. Which one among the following statements appropriately defines the term ‗Drain Theory‘ as propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji in his work ‗Poverty and Un–British Rule in India‘? (a) That a part of India‘s national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India got no material returns (b) That the resources of India were being utilised in the interest of Britain (c) That the British industrialists were being given a opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the imperial power (d) That the British goods were being imported to India making the country poorer day by day Q78. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a (a) Federation (b) Confederation (c) Unitary form of Government (d) Union of States

MockTime.com Q79. Silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. Which one among the following is not true of silk routes? (a) Historians have identified several silk route over land and sea (b) Silk routes have linked Asia with Europe and Northern Africa (c) Silk routes existed before the Christian era and thrived almost upto fifteenth century (d) As a result of silk route trade, precious metals like gold and silver, flowed from Asia to Europe Q80. Statement I: Lomash Rishi and Sudama caves in the Barabar hills, modelled on wooden architectural prototypes are examples of the earliest cave architecture in India. Statement II: Barabar hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks. (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q81. Among the precious stones, the most extensive foreign trade during the Gupta age was that of (a) diamonds (b) ruby (c) pearl (d) sapphire Q82. Consider the following statements 1. The Jains believed that Mahavira had twenty-three predecessors. 2. Parshvanatha was twenty-third Tirthankara. 3. Rishava was immediate successor of Mahavira. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 Q83. Match the following List I(Temple) - List II (Town) A. Kailasanathar- 1. Bhuvneshwar

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B. Lingaraj - 2. Khajuraho C. Kandariya Mahadey- 3. Mount Abu D. Dilwara- 4. Kanchipuram Codes: A B C D A BCD (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 123 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 214 Q84. Statement I: The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women's education that arose in the 1840s, and 1850s. Statement II: The first step in giving modern education to girls was undertaken by Vidyasagar in 1800. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Q85. Pattadakal group of monuments are located in which one of the following states? (a) Bihar (b) Odisha (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Q86. Which one of the following oil fields of India is the oldest and still producing oil? (a) Bombay High (b) Digboi (c) Ankleshwar (d) Naharkatiya Q87. Assertion Water in an open pond remains cool even on a hot summer day. Reason (R) Water on heating evaporates and heat energy gets converted into latent heat. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q88. The ageing index in India has increased from 14% in 1951 to > 21% in 2001. With respect to this which of the following effects is/are correct? 1. Decline in the proportion of child population.

MockTime.com 2. Increase in the proportion of old population. Select the correct answer from the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q89. The channel separating the Andaman Island from the Nicobar Islands is known as (a) Coco channel (b) 10° channel (c) Duncan passage (d) somboraro channel Q90. The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is located at (a) 30°W longitude (b) 30°E longitude (c) 28°E longitude (d) 28°W longitude Q91. Which of the following three rivers of the peninsula India have the Amarkantak region as their source? (a) Narmada, Krishna Godavari (b) Son, Mahanadi, Narmada (c) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery (d) Chambal. Betwa, Luni Q92. Statement I Most of the East flowing rivers over the Deccan plateau have deltas at their mouth. Statement II These rivers have courses through soft rocks of the Deccan plateau. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q93. Match the following List I (Natural Vegetation of India) List II (Annual Rainfall Received) A. Tropical evergreen forests -1. 100-200 cm B. Tropical deciduous forests -2. Above 200 cm C. Tropical dry forests -3. Less than 50 cm D. Arid forests -4. Above 300 cm -5. 50-100 cm Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 4 3 1 5 (c) 2 1 5 3 (d) 2 1 3 4

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Q94. Horse latitudes lie within the atmospheric pressure belts of (a) Polar high (b) Equatorial low (c) Sub-tropical high. (d) Sub-polar low Q95. Which one among the following is not an important factor of climate of an area? (a) Latitude (b) Longitude (c) Altitude (d) Distance from the sea Q96. The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is called (a) silty soil (b) loamy soil (c) sandy soil (d) loess soil Q97. Consider the following statements 1.Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on community land and on privately owned land. 2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the domestic need of the family. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q98. The variability among living organisms from all sources including terrestrial, marine and other ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are part which includes diversity within species, between species of ecosystems refers to (a) geographical diversity (b) zoological diversity (c) ecological diversity (d) biological diversity Q99. Which parts of the Earth‘s surface experience least variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the year? (a) Poles (b) Equatorial regions (c) Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn (d) Arctic and Antarctic circles Q100. Red soil colour is caused by (a) aluminium compounds (b) mercury compounds (c} iron compound

MockTime.com (c) clay (d) Q101. Composite volcanic cone is also called strata cone because of the (a) alternating sheets of lava and pyroclastic materials (b) uneven streams of lava flow (c) cataclysmic eruption (d) eruption of lava flow from a fissure Q102. Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of information about the interior of the Earth? 1. Earthquake wave 2. Volcano 3. Gravitational force 4. Earth magnetism Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these Q103. Match the following List I List II A. Girija Devi - 1. Leading woman B. Indira Nooyi executive - 2. Leading writer C. Kiran Desai - 3. Hematologist turned executive of the BBC trust D. Chitra Bharucha - 4. Anti-liquor activist Codes A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 Q104. Who among the following has been selected for Netherlands Golden Ark Awarded for the year 2008? (a) Medha Patkar (b) Charudutt Mishra (c) Baba Amte (d) Baba Ramdev Q105. Who among the following had won the Wimbledon Women's Singles Title, 2008? (a) Ana Ivanovic (b) Maria Sharapova (c) Serena Williams (d) Venus Williams Q106. The acronym of which one of the following missile is perceived as the confluence of the two nations (India and Russia) represented by two rivers?

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(a) Astra (b) Akash (c) Prithvi (d) BrahMos Q107. The equipment SONAR is used to determine the (a) depth of the seabed (b) intensity of an earthquake (c) cruising altitude of an aircraft (d) speed of a moving object Q108. AVAHAN'-the Indian segment of Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) is engaged in the prevention of (a) dengue (b) polio (c) HIV/AIDS (d) filariasis Q109. Which one of the following is the solitary aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy that turns 50 in 2009, and has the distinction of being the oldest floating airfield in service? (a) INS Viraat (b) INS Trishul (c) INS Godavari (d) INS Vikramaditya Q110. Consider the following passage about a folk dance form of India. This dance is performed solo or in group of 3 or 4 females essentially on the occasion of worship of Goddess Manasa. As per mythology, Behulaa had to dance before the Goddess Manasa to get back her husband's (Lakhindar) life. The dancers while dancing leave their hair open. Another striking moment of this dance is dancing with Daa (sharp weapon used for sacrifice)and rotating of dancers' head in rapid circular motion, with open tresses. Which one of the following dance form is described above? (a) Padayani dance (b) Deodhani dance (c) Bagurumba dance (d) Gaur dance Q111. In August 2010, a container ship had collided with another ship in the Arabian Sea near Mumbai. Which one of the following was the consequence of that? (a) The container ship was not damaged

MockTime.com (b) The container ship sank and the entire oil of the ship spilled in the sea causing great damage to the aquatic lives (c) The container ship was tilted, some boxes fell into the sea, some moderate scale oil spill took place and subsequently the ship was made upright (d) The container ship was just tilted and subsequently made upright Q112. Which among the following is/are example/examples of youth unrest in India? 1. Naxalite movement 2. Anti-foreigners movement in Asom 3. Anti-Mandal Commission agitation Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 Q113. Consider the following statements 1. National Cadet Corps (NCC) is a preindependence organisation. 2. The motto of NCC is Unity and Discipline. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q114. Match the following List I (Short-listed books for DSC Prize for South Asian Literature 2012) List II (Author) A. Bharathipura - 1. Kavery Nambisan B. A Street in Srinagar - 2. Shehan Karunatilaka C. Chinaman - 3. Chandrakanta D. The Story that must not be told - 4. UR Ananthamurthy Codes A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 Q115. INS Vikramaditya, scheduled for induction into the Indian Navy soon, is the name given to (a) an aircraft carrier (b) a nuclear submarine (c) an amphibious assault vessel (d) a stealth ship

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Q116. Who among the following is/are the Indian writer(s) shortlisted for the DSC Prize for South Asian literature for the year 2013? 1. Amitabh Ghosh 2. JeetThayil 3. Uday Prakash Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 Q117. Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of world heritage sites of the UNESCO? (a) Western Ghats (b) Agra Fort (c) Ajanta Caves (d) Meenakshi Temple Q118. Which one among the following Indian scientists has been awarded the '2012 award for International Science Cooperation by Chinese Academy of Sciences? (a) KS Srinivasan (b) Sreekumar Banerjee (c) DD Bhawalkar (d) CNR Rao Q119. Indian Navy commissioned its first Advanced Light Helicopter Squadron at Kochi in November 2013. What is the name of the helicopter? (a) Chetak (b) Dhruv (c) Rudra (d) Cheetah Q120. Consider the following statements about world's first Modern Slavery Bill, published in June 2014 by the British House of Commons: 1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe which specifically addresses slavery and trafficking in the 21st century. 2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence available for the most serious offenders up to 14 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. a

MockTime.com 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. a 53. c 54. a 55. c 56. c 57. d 58. A 59. D 60. A 61. D 62. d 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. c 70. c 71. d 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. d 79. d 80. b 81. d 82. a 83. b 84. b 85. d 86. b 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. d 99. b 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. b 104. b 105. d 106. d 107. a 108. c 109. a 110. b 111. c 112. d 113. b 114. c 115. a 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. b 120. c 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Limestone (CaCO3) is the main raw material used in the manufacture of cement. Copper is good conductor of elecricity hence, it is used in electrical goods. Bauxite is an ore of Al. It is used in manufacture of aeroplanes. Manganese is used in steel industry to form manganese steel. 6. A very fine powder of ferric oxide is known as "jeweler's rouge", "red rouge", or simply rouge. It is used to put the final polish on metallic jewelry and lenses, and historically as a cosmetic. 7. On adding water, quicklime (CaO) gives a hissing sound and forms calcium hydroxide commonly known as slaked lime. CaO + H2O ® C Ca (OH2) +15000 calories 8. CFL is a type of fluorescent lamp which contains mercury. Automobile battery contains toxic substance lead (Pb). Polymers contain toxic substance phthalates. Diesel engine emits the harmful nitrogen oxides by the internal combustion of fuel. 9. Heavy water or deuterium oxide (D2O) is an oxide of deuterium which is an isotope of hydrogen. 10. Gypsum (CaSO4 ×2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to decrease the rate of setting of cement so, that it gets sufficiently hardens. 11. A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture of more than two elements. 12. It is a simple displacement reaction in which Hydrogen is displaced by Sodium metal, results in the formation of sodium chloride (NaCl). Also the oxidation state of each atom is same in both sides. 13. Biogas is primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and may have small

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amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2 S), moisture and siloxanes. 14. Lithium is also a highly reactive element, meaning that a lot of energy can be stored in its atomic bonds. This translates into a very high energy density for lithiumion batteries. It is used in mobile phone, laptops etc. 15. 16. 17. Jagdish Chandra Bose was elected as a fellow of the Royal Society of London for his contribution in the field of Plant Physiology and Physics. 18. Infrared rays helps in reading an old written material. 19. Pressure is normal force per unit area, therefore, for lesser value of area pressure is greatest. 20. When a ball drops on to the floor then floor exerts a force for small time which is equal to change in momentum of the ball. 21. Pressure = force area Bluntness of knife increases area, hence decreases the pressure for a given force. 22. When an object reflects all the colours of a white light, then it would appear white. White light is the combination of all seven colours (VIBGYOR) of light. 23. Moderators like carbon and Graphite are used for slowing down the neutrons in a nuclear reactor. Neutrons from fission have very high speeds and must be slowed greatly by "moderation" to maintain the chain reaction. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains 3 lists: Union List (97 Subjects) States List (66 subjects) Concurrent List(52 subjects) 31. The Bombay High Court has benches in Nagpur, Aurangabad and Panaji. 32. The estimates committee is the largest committee of the parliament. This Committee consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. The term of office of the Committee is one year. The committee was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister of India.

MockTime.com 33. Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation trade or business is also available to non citizens. 34. Uniform civil code is not generated by people's struggle. 35. Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may have to be filled, this system postulates one vote for each voter with the reservation that this single vote is transferred to other candidates. This is the reason why this system is known as "single transferable vote system." 36. There are three Financial Committees in the Indian Parliament mentioned below: 1. Estimates Committee- This Committee consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. The term of the Committee is one year. 2. Committee on Public UndertakingsThe Committee on Public Undertakings consists of 22 members(15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from Rajya Sabha) .The term of the Committee is one year. 3. Public Accounts Committee- This Committee consists of 22 members (15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.). The term of the Committee is one year. 37. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time.Under Article 352 the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. 38. The Directive Principles resemble the instrument of instructions enumerated in the "government of India Act of 1935". 39. Sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi was appointed by the constituent Assembly of India to recommend the future pattern of administration of the North Eastern Frontiers Areas. 40. According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath or affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule. 41. In recognizing a parliamentary party or group, the speaker shall take into consideration the following principles: An

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association of members who propose to form a parliamentary party: 1. Shall have an association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work 2. Shall have an organization both inside and outside the house 3. Shall have at least a strength equal to the quorum fixed to constitute a sitting of the house i.e one tenth of the total number of members of the house. 42. 43. 44. 45. All enzymes are protein by composition but all proteins are not enzymes. 46. Beri-beri is not insect borne disease. It is caused by the deficiency of vitamin-B1 or thiamine. 47. Egg white are good easy way to add protein to any food. Egg albumin is a class of simple, water soluble proteins that are present in egg white. 48. Cinchona bark creates quinine which is an anti-malarial drug. Poppy plant creates morphine it is an opium alkaloid, which is a strong analgesic and also has sedative and soothing effect. Fungus and bacterium are the sources of penicillin and tetracycline respectively, they are antibiotics. 49. Iron is the main element in haemoglobin. So its deficiency creates anaemia. Women show carelessness about their nutrient requirements, so they face the problem generally. 50. Tips of leaves in grasses and common garden plants exhibit water droplets in early morning hours because of a atmospheric phenomenon of dew formation. Dew is produced due to condensation of atmospheric moisture. 51. The internal ear of human beings consists of three parts viz. cochlea, utricle and sacculus The cochlea helps in hearing whereas utricle and sacculus help to maintain the body balance. 52. White blood cells destroy foreign proteins (bodies) e.g pathogens by the process of phagocytosis and in this way protects the body from infection. 53. Raw alcohol after being drunk will be absorbed fastest through the wall of digestive tract. Alcohol is easily diffusible across the plasma membrance. It does not need any digestion before absorption in the alimentary canal. Therefore, its absorption begins from mouth, whereas the other substances are

MockTime.com absorbed in the later parts of the alimentary canal. 54. All the above process will get stopped if vaseline is applied on both the surfaces of the leaf. Reason is that stomata will be blocked, all these processes requires the direct contact between the leaf and atmosphere. 55. Elephantiasis is a symptom of a variety of diseases, where parts of a person's body swell to massive proportions. It is caused by a number of parasitic worms, particularly Wuchereria bancrofti. 56. Thyroid gland is one of the largest endocrine glands which is present in the neck. It is responsible to control body‘s metabolism, temperature, appetite and muscle strength, et c. 57. 58. The main reason behind this move is the desire of the government of India to attract more foreign investment. 59. 60. General equilibrium involving both production and consumption also ensures the achievement of pareto efficiency. Pareto efficiency in this regard requires that marginal rate of transformation should be equal to the marginal rate of substitution of the individuals. 61. MONEX is associated with Monsoon Experiment. The Monsoon Experiment (MONEX) was the core of the Global Atmospheric Research Program (GARP) Monsoon subprogram, which was a major international effort to achieve a better understanding of the planetary monsoon circulation. 62. Union Finance Ministry on 21 June 2014 accepted the recommendations of Arvind Mayaram Committee on rationalising the FDI/FPI definition. On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating nonrepatriable investment as domestic and exempting it from FDI drelated conditions. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Lord Dufferin was the viceroy of India at the time of the formation of Indian national Congress.

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71. • Illbert Bill- 1883 • Marley Minto Reforms- 1909 • Rowlatt Act- 1919 • Gandhi Irwin pact- 1931 72. Sher Shah's biggest achievement was the reestablishment of law and order across his empire. The village headmen and zamindars were made responsible for losses due to robberies. If they were not able to catch the robbers, they were themselves punished as criminals. At the local level, village panchayats and zamindars settled disputes and punished the guilty. Above them was the qazi in each state. 73. The Nehru-Liaquat fact was signed on April 8, 1950 between the two Prime Minister Jawahar lal Nehru and Liaquat Ali Khan to protect and guarantee the rights to minorities in both the countries after 74. The Indigo revolt of Bengal was directed against British planters who forced peasants to take advances and sign fraudulent contracts which forced the peasants to grow Indigo under terms which were the least profitable to them. Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas who organised the peasants into a counter force to deal with the pl anters lathiyals (armed retainers) . In April 1860 all the cultivators of the Barasat subdivision and in the districts of Pabna and Nadia resorted to strike. They refused to sow any indigo. It led to the appointment of an Indigo Commission in 1860 by the government by which some of the abuses of Indigo cultivation was removed. 75. The proposed conditions of Gandhi -Irwin pact were as follows: • Discontinuation of the civil disobedience movement by the Indian National Congress • Participation by the Indian National Congress in the Round Table Conference • Withdrawal of all ordinances issued by the British Government imposing curbs on the activities of the Indian National Congress • Withdrawal of all prosecutions relating to several types of offenses except those involving violence • Release of prisoners arrested for participating in the civil disobedience movement • Removal of the tax on salt, which allowed the Indians to produce, trade, and sell salt legally and for their own private use 76. The First Anglo-Maratha War (17751782) was fought between the British East India company and Maratha Empire in India. The war began with the Treaty of Surat and ended with the Treaty of Salbai. After the British defeat, Warren Hastings through

MockTime.com Mahadji Shinde proposed a new treaty between the Peshwa and the British that would recognize the young Madhavrao as the Peshwa and grant Raghunathrao a pension. This treaty, known as the Treaty of Salbai, was signed on 17 May 1782, and was ratified by Hastings in June 1782 and by Phadnis in February 1783. The treaty also returned to Shinde all his territories west of the Yamuna. It also guaranteed peace between the two sides for twenty years, thus ending the war. 77. Dadabhai Naoroji was the first man to say that internal factors were not the reasons of poverty in India but poverty was caused by the colonial rule that was draining the wealth and prosperity of India. In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the 'drain of wealth' theory in which he stated that the Britain was completely draining India. He mentioned this theory in his book Poverty and Un British Rule in India. 78. The cabinet Mission plan for India envisaged a Union of State. Cabinet Mission of 1946 to India aimed to discuss and plan for the transfer of power from the British Government to Indian leadership, providing India with independence. The mission consisted of Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps. 79. The Silk Route or Silk Road refers to a network of ancient trade routes connecting Asia, Europe and Africa. Extending more than 6,500 kms, the Silk Route was majorly used to transport Chinese Silk to Europe through Central Asia from 2nd Century BC. The ancient Silk Road helped to integrated the old Chinese, Indian, Persian, Arabian, ancient Greek and Roman cultures and promoted the exchange of the Western and Oriental civilizations. Half of the Silk Road, which winded along between Xi'an to the east bank of the Mediterranean, was located in Xinjiang. Xinjiang was a place where the ancient Western and Oriental cultures met and many famous historical people visited. It was the world's first information superhighway. 80. Both statements are true however, statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. They arelocated in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya district, Bihar. The caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect. Lomas Rishi caves are the arch-like shape facade of Lomas

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Rishi Caves, imitate the contemporary timber architecture. Sudama caves were dedicated by Mauryan Emperor, Ashoka in 261 BC. 81. Sapphire was the most precious stone in terms of foreign trade in Gupta period. 82. Rishabha- 1st Tirthankara out of 83. The Kanchi Kailasanathar temple is dedicated to the Lord Shiva. It is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram, located in Tamil Nadu.'Lingaraj' temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is also said that the temple was constructed by Jajati Keshari, the SomaVanshi King.It is located in Bhubaneswar, Orissa. Kandariya Mahadev Temple is located in Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh, Khajuraho was once the religious capital of the Chandela Rajputs. Dilwara Jain Templesare located at Mount Abu,Rajasthan and were built by Vastupal Tejpal.These temples were built between 11th to 13th century AD. Dilwara Temple complex consists of five major sections or temples devoted to five Jain trithankaras(saints) : Shri Mahaveer Swami Temple, Shri Mahaveer Swami Temple, Shri ParshavNath Temple, Shri Rishabdaoji Temple, Shri NemiNathJi Temple. 84. The Christian missionaries were the first to set up the Calcutta Female Juvenile Society in 1819. The Bethune School, founded by J.E.D. Bethune, president of the Council of Education in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women's education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s. Pandit lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar was associated with no less than 35 girls' schools in Bengal and is considered one of the pioneers of women's education. 85. Pattadakal is a village and an important tourist centre in the state of Karnataka and is located on the left bank of the Malaprabha River. 86. The Digboi refinery was set up in 1901 by Assam Oil Company Ltd.It is situated in upper Assam district of Tinsukia. Digboi oilfield has the oldest running oil well in the world. 87. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 88. Increase in the proportion of old population. 89. The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the South Andaman and Car Nicobar in the Bay of Bengal. 90. Cairo is located at 30 degree east longitude.

MockTime.com 91. Son, Mahanadi and Narmada rivers originate from Amarkantak region. 92. 93. A. Tropical evergreen forests- Above 200 cm B. Tropical deciduous forests - 100-200 cm C. Tropical Dry forest- 50-100 cm D. Arid forest- Less than 50 cm 94. The horse latitudes are regions located at about 30 degrees north and south of the equator. These latitudes are characterized by calm winds and little precipitation. 95. While the latitude of a particular location affects its climate, the longitude can determine the time zone a particular location is in. 96. Loess soil is a wind-blown sedimentary deposit. Good examples are found in China and Europe and United States etc. It is a kind of silt that forms a fertile topsoil in some parts of the world. Loess consists of tiny mineral particles brought by wind to the places where they now lie. These mineral particles are finer than sand, but coarser than clay. 97. Rural Forestry is the raising of trees on community land and not on private land as in farm forestry. All these programs aim to provide for the entire community and not for any individual. The government has the responsibility of providing seedlings, fertilizer but the community has to take responsibility of protecting the trees. Farm forestryiswhen Individual farmers are being encouraged to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the domestic needs of the family. 98. Biological diversity is used to refer to the total number of different species on Earth. A collection of this biodiversity would include human beings, Bengal tigers, sugar maples, oyster mushrooms, bacteria, and the millions of other living organisms found on Earth. 99. Equatorial regions are located in a band around the Equator and cover about 6% of the Earth's surface. They are often in lowland areas and have a climate that is hot and wet all year round. In these parts, earth surface experiences least variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the year. 100. Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China's Tibet Autonomous Region. Nathu La is located on the 563 km Old Silk Route, an offshoot of the historic Silk Road. It was sealed by India after the 1962 Sino-Indian War and was re-opened in 2006

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following numerous bilateral trade agreements. 101. Composite cone volcanoes, which are also called 'stratovolcanoes' or simply 'composite volcanoes,' are cone-shaped volcanoes composed of layers of lava, ash and rock debris. These steep-sided volcanoes erupt in an explosive manner. It is also called strata cone because of the cataclysmic eruption. 102. Earthquake waves are propagating vibrations that carry energy from the source of the shaking outward in all directions. It is of four types: P (for primary) S (for secondary) Love Rayleigh A volcano is a mountain that opens downward to a pool of molten rock below the surface of the earth. When pressure builds up, eruptions occur. 103. Girija Devi- Anti-liquor activist Indira Nooyi- Leading woman executive Kiran DesaiLeading writer Chitra BharuchaHaematologist-turned-executive of the BBC Trust 104. 105. 106. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile being developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between DRDO of India and NPO Mashinostroeyenia (NPOM) of Russia. The missile is named after two rivers, the Brahmaputra in India and the Moskva in Russia. 107. SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) is used to determine the depth of seabed. 108. Avahan is an initiative sponsored by the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation to reduce the spread of HIV in India. It began in 2003. 109. INS Viraat was the flagship of the Indian Navy before INS Vikramaditya was commissioned in 2013. She is the oldest aircraft carrier in service in the world as the Royal Navy's HMS Hermes and was transferred to India in 1987. 110. Deodhani dance is a folk dance of Assam. It is a solo or group performance. In the group performance, it essentially comprises 3 or 4 women. This dance form is associated with the worship of the snake goddess Manasa. 111. 112. Mandal Commission was set up in 1978 by Morarji Desai government to identify the socially or educationally backward classes to consider the question of seat reservations and quotas for people to redress caste discrimination. It was chaired by B. P.

MockTime.com Mandal. It recommended 27% reservation quota for OBC. V.P. Singh, the Prime Minister at the time announced the implementation of the report of mandal Commission which led to protests. 113. The NCC in India was formed with the National Cadet Corps Act of 1948. It was raised on 15 July 1948. The National Cadet Corps can be considered as a successor of the University Officers Training Corps (UOTC) which was established by the British in 1942. The motto of NCC is 'Unity & Discipline' which was adopted on 23 Dec 1957. 114. Bharathipura - U R Ananthamurthy A street in Srinagar- Chandrakanta China man- Shehan Karunatilaka The story that must not be told- Kavery Nambisan 115. INS Vikramaditya is an aircraft carrier. 116. Amitabh Ghosh was selected for the DSC Prize for South Asian Literature for year 2013. 117. The Western Ghats, older than the Himalayas, and described as one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of biological diversity were inscribed in the UNESCO World Natural Heritage sites list in July 2012. Western Ghats are a chain of mountains running parallel to India's western coast, approximately 30-50 km inland, the Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. These mountains cover an area of around 140,000 km in a 1,600 km long stretch that is interrupted only by the 30 km Palghat Gap at around 11°N. A significant characteristic of the Western Ghats is the exceptionally high level of biological diversity and endemism. 118. 119. Dhruv was commissioned by Indian Navy at kochi in November 2013. 120. Britain on 10 June 2014 published the world's first Modern Slavery Bill. The Bill is first of its kind in Europe and one of its first in the world. It for the first time specifically addressed slavery and trafficking in the 21st century. The Bill will increase the maximum sentence available for the most serious offenders from 14 years to life imprisonment

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Anoxic conditions emanate from: 1.Density stratification 2.Stagnation 3.Inputs of inorganic and organic 4. strong thermo clines (a) 1,2 (b) 2,3,4 (c) 1,2,4 (d) 1,2, 3, 4 Q2. Region of the Earth that is extremely biologically diverse and also under severe threat due to habitat loss, climate change or extensive species loss is : (a) Threatened (b) (b Endangered (c) Critically endangered (d) Biodiversity hotspot Q3. The greatest threat to organisms and biodiversity is (a) process of habitat loss (b) Species extinction all over the world (c) Reduced carrying capacity of the habitat (d) Biodiversity hotspots. Q4. The biodiversity hotspot that comprises deserts, savannas, arid woodland and forests, and contains a large number of endemic plant species is (a) Cerrado (b) Caucasus (c) Tropical Andes (d) Australia Q5. The flavour of apple is mainly due to which one of the following? (a) Formalin (b) Benzene (c) Ethanol (d) Benzaldehyde Q6. 'Misch metal' is widely used in the manufacture of which of the following? (a) Material of car brake (b) Smoke detectors (c) Cigarette lighters (d) Emergency lights

Q7. Commercial vulcanisation of rubber involves (a) sulphur (b) carbon (c) phosphorus (d) selenium Q8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. List I (Alloy) - List II (Constituent) A. Solder - 1 Iron and carbon B. Brass - 2 Copper and zinc C. Bronze - 3 Copper and tin D. Steel - 4 Lead and tin Codes A B C D (a) 1234 (b) 4231 (c) 1324 (d) 4321 Q9. Which one among the following is a sin smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help the detection of gas leakage? (a) Ethanol (b) Thioethanol (c) Methane (d) Chloroform Q10. Which one among the following will you put into pure water in order to pass electric current through it? (a) Kerosene (b) Lemon juice (c) Lemon juice (d) Sugar Q11. The gas which turns lime water milky is (a) carbon dioxide (b) carbon monoxide (c) ammonia (d) nitrogen dioxide Q12. A liquid initially contracts when cooled down to4°C but on further cooling down to0°C, it expands. The liquid is (a) alcohol (b) water (c) molten iron (d) mercury Q13. Which of the following is a good lubricant? (a) Diamond powder (b) Graphite powder

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(c) Molten carbon (d) Alloy of carbon and iron Q14. Which one among the following processes is not part of a chemical weathering? (a) Hydration (b) Exfoliation (c) Oxidation (d) Solution Q15. Fog is an example of a colloidal system of (a) liquid dispersed in gas (b) gas dispersed in gas (c) solid dispersed in gas (d) solid dispersed in liquid Q16. Glycogen is often known as (a) animal starch (b) a hormone (c) aliginic acid (d) cellulose Q17. Assertion (A): Steam is more harmful for human body than the boiling water in case of burn. Reason (R): Boiling water contains more heat than steam. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q18. Earthquake (shock) waves are (a) infrasonic waves (b) ultrasonic waves (c) seismic (d) infrared waves Q19. A passenger in a moving train tosses a five rupee coin. If the coin falls behind him, then the train must be moving with a uniform (a) acceleration (b) deceleration (c) speed (d) velocity

MockTime.com Q20. If the door of a running refrigerator in a closed room is kept open, what will be the net effect on the room? (a) It will cool the room (b) It will heat the room (c) It will make no difference on the average (d) It will make the temperature go up and down Q21. When deep sea fishes are brought to the surface of the sea, their bodies burst. This is because the blood in their bodies flows at very (a) high speed (b) high pressure (c) low speed (d) low pressure Q22. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is (a) periodic but not simple harmonic (b) non-periodic (c) simple harmonic and time period is independent of the density of the liquid (d) simple harmonic and time period depends on the density of the liquid Q23. distance time The distance-time graph for an object is shown above. Which one of the following statements holds true for this object? (a) The object is moving with uniform speed (b) The object is at rest (c) The object is having non-linear motion (d) The object is moving with non-uniform speed Q24. Radioactivity is a property of (a) Atomic nuclei (b) Excited electrons (c) X-rays (d) Ultraviolet light Q25. A dynamo, which is said to generate electricity, actually acts as a (a) Source of ions (b) Source of electric charge (c) Source of electrons (d) Converter of energy Q26. Consider the following statements: 1.FM transmission is noise free. 2.Electrical disturbances in the atmosphere do not affect the frequency of the modulated wave. Which of the above statements is/are true?

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(a) Both (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q27. Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body, is based on the phenomenon of (a) Total internal reflection (b) Interference (c) Diffraction (d) Polarisation Q28. Consider the following statements: 1.The position of C.G. of a body remains unchanged even when the body is deformed. 2.A light car and a bus moving with a same speed can be stopped by applying the same force. 3.Water is a bad conductor of heat but a good conductor of electricity. 4.Light travels faster in air than in water. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1,2 (b) 1,3 (c) 2,3 (d) 3,4 Q29. Consider the following statements 1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States. 2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q30. What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with? (a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule (b) Inclusion of service tax levied by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the states in the Seventh Schedule (c) Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years (d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh Q31. Consider the following statements 1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.

MockTime.com 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q32. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State? (a) The President of India (b) The Governor of the concerned State (c) The Legislative Council of the concerned State (d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State Q33. The function of a Protem Speaker is to (a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence of the Speaker (b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected (c) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected (d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates of members Q34. DIRECTIONS : The following questions are based on the following passage. A government in a democratic country has to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women), then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only

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those particular new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of democracy. 82. W hat are the 'new issues that dominate the middle class led social agenda today? (a) Price rise, progressive taxation and the Indo-USA nuclear deal (b) Acute deprivation, malnourishment and famines (c) Dowry deaths, gender inequalities and price rise (d) Illiteracy, poverty and infart mortality Q35. Which one among thefollowing is not correct? A special category state invariably (a) is a border State (b) has harsh terrain (c) has low literacy rate (d) has poor infrastructure Q36. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct? 1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts. 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states. 3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q37. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a money bill (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement (d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants Q38. The Rights to Information means and includes 1. Inspection of documents.

MockTime.com 2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by the applicant. 3. Taking photograph of files. 4. Obtaining information in tapes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these Q39. Consider the following statements 1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected member from voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party. 2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply if onethird of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the party and constitute themselves as a separate party. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q40. Match the following List I (Commission/Committee) List II (Mandate) A. Sachar Committee -1. Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984 B. Srikrishna Commission -2. Socio-economic and educational conditions of Muslims in india C. Ranganath Misra Commission -3. Bombay Communal Riots 1992 D. Nanavati Commission -4. Linguistic and religious minorities in India Codes: A B C D A BCD (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 Q41. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the (a) Speaker may direct (b) President of India may direct (c) Parliament may decide (d) Finance Minister may decide Q42. Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel are correct? 1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between States

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2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent States after decolonization would be able to develop a new and more principled approach to international relations 3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an agreement between China and India Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Q43. Women constitute, as per the 2001 census, the following % of population in India : (a) 48.26% (b) 47.26% (c) 49.26% (d) 50.26% Q44. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following? (a) Calcutta (b) Madras (c) Bombay (d) Delhi Q45. Consider the following statements in respect of thyroid gland. 1.It is situated in the neck. 2. It is vital to maintain of normal body temperature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q46. Which of the following gases is released from rice fields in the most prominent quantities? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide Q47. In normal adult human, what is the rate of heart beat per minute? (a) 72-80 (b) 70-75 (c) 80-97 (d) 82-87

MockTime.com Q48. Wavelengths of which of the following colour of the visible spectrum of light are maximally absorbed by green plants? (a) Green and Yeilow (b) Red and Blue (c) Green and Red (d) Blue and Yellow Q49. Which one of the following is considered normal blood pressure in man? (a) 120/80 mm water (b) 120/80 mm blood (c) 120/80 mm mercury (d) 120/80 mm air Q50. If excess fertilizer is applied to a plant without water, the plant will (a) be stunted in growth (b) develop modifications (c) die due to plasmolysis (d) remain unaffected Q51. Which of the following statements correctly describe the properties of hormones? 1.They are steroids, proteins, peptides or amino acids derivatives. 2. They are not produced by body organs and are mostly taken as supplements. 3.They do not influence the working of those organs which have secreted them. 4.They act as co-enzymes and help enzymes to perform their function. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1.2,3 and4 (a) 1 and4 (b) 2,3 and4 (c) 1 and3 (d) Q52. Rain water collected after30 to40 minutes of raining is not suitable for drinking because it (a) contains bacteria and dirt (b) contains dissolved toxic chemicals (c) is deficient in minerals (d) is acidic Q53. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem against gravity is (a) osmosis (b) transpiration (c) photosynthesis (d) diffusion

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Q54. A person feeds on rice and vegetable made up of potato only. He is likely to suffer from deficiency of (a) carbohydrate and vitamins (b) proteins (c) carbohydrate and proteins (d) proteins and fats Q55. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) Pulses are rich in proteins (b) Milk is a rich source of Vitamin A (c) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates (d) Vegetables are rich source of minerals Q56. Which one of the following is not a constituent of biogas? (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide Q57. According to the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management [FRBM]. Act., 2003 and FRBM Rules, 2004, the Government is under obligation to present three statements before the parliament along with the Annual Budget. Which one of the following is not one of them? (a) Macroeconomic Framework Statement (b) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement (c) Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement (d) Statement showing Short term Fiscal Policy Q58. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. 2. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it. 3. History of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle. 4. Nowhere is this more obviously the case of war and struggle than in West Asia and Central America. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

MockTime.com Q59. Which of the following occupations are included under secondary sector as per the national income accounts? 1. Manufacturing 2. Construction 3. Gas and water supply 4. Mining and quarrying Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Q60. If the average total cost is declining then (a) the marginal cost must be less than the average total cost (b) total cost must be constant (c) the average fixed cost curve must be above the average variable cost curve (d) the marginal cost must be greater than the average total cost Q61. Consider the following statements relating to the NonAlignment Movement: l. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was created and founded during the collapse of the colonial system and the independence struggles of the peoples of Africa, Asia, Latin America and other regions of the world and at the height' of the Cold War. 2. The First Summit of the bMovement of Non-Aligned Countries was convened by the leaders of India, Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and Yugoslavia at Belgrade on September 1-6, 1961. 3. During the early days of the Movement, its actions were a key factor in the decolonization process, which led later to the attainment of freedom by many countries and to the founding of several new sovereign States. 4. The fundamental principle of the movement is to maintain equal distance from both the super powers by joining the military alliances of both the blocs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) l and 2 only Q62. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

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1. The Marxist theory repudiates the idea of the atomised and alienated individual. 2. Marxism upholds the idea of the natural rights of men and individuals. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q63. Land Development Banks form a part of the (a) commercial banks (b) Industrial Development Bank of India (c) Food Corporation of India (d) cooperative credit structure Q64. Which of the following Insurance companies has introduced a Rainfall Insurance Scheme called Varsha Bima? (a) ICICI Lombard (b) General Insurance Corporation (c) Agriculture Insurance Company of India (d) New India Assurance Company Q65. Three states which had Human Development Indicators (HDI) higher than China but lower than Mexico and Korea, according to RBI study, are: (a) Punjab, Gujarat, Kerala (b) Kerala, Maharashtra, Punjab (c) Maharashtra, Kerala, Karnataka (d) Kerala, Karnataka, A.P. Q66. The Kew Economic Policy (1991) was launched in the background of the following economic indicators: l. India‘s foreign exchange reserves had fallen to US$ 1 billion. II. The fall of the Soviet Union had deprived India of almost a quarter of its export market. III. There was negative growth in real GDP. IV. Indian rupee had to be devalued by 45 percent. (a) all 4 (b) only I (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III Q67. The Indian institution that has filed more patents than all individual patents put together in India is: (a) CSIR (b) ICAR (c) AIIMS (d) DRDO

MockTime.com Q68. Consider the following statements with regard to Planning Commission (PC) and Finance Commission (FC). Which of these statements is not true? (a) Both FC and PC are institutions for the transfer of resources from centre to the states. (b) While PC is a permanent body, FC is constituted every five years. (c) Awards given by both are binding on the Central Government. (d) FC awards non-plan resources while PC allocates plan resources Q69. The Sun Temple of Konark was built by Narasimhadeva I. To which dynasty did he belong to? (a) Somavamsi dynasty (b) Imperial Ganga dynasty (c) Suryavansi Gajapti dynasty (d) Bhoi dynasty

Q70. Separate electorates for Muslims in India were introduced by which one of the following Acts? (a) Government of India Act of 1909 (b) Indian Councils Act of 1892 (c) Rowlatt Act of 1919 (d) Government of India Act of 1935 Q71. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission? (a) Sir Stafford Cripps (b) AV Alexander (c) Radcliffe (d) Pathick Lawrence Q72. Fa-Hien‘s mission to India was to (a) learn about the administrative system of the Gupta kings (b) understand the social position of women during the Gupta period (c) visit the Buddhist institutions and to collect copies of Buddhist manuscripts (d) get full knowledge about the condition of peasants during the period of Gupta kings Q73. Who drafted the Constitution of Muslim League, ‗The Green Book‘? (a) Rahamat Ali

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(b) Muhammad Iqbal (c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (d) Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar Q74. Prior to 1813, which among the following measures, was not adopted by the British to exploit the Indians economically? (a) Monopolising the trade of raw goods wherever possible and selling them at high rates (b) Forcing Indiancraftsman to produce quality products in fixed quantity and at fixed price (c) Free Trade Policy (d) Elimination of Indian traders from competition by every means Q75. Match the following List I (Event) - List II (Place/Person) A. Tarmashirin Khan‘s - 1. Vijayanagara invasion of India B. Visit of Farnao- 2. Zainul Abidin Martinz Evangelho, the Portuguese factor C. Visit of the traveller - 3. Champaner Nuniz D. Network of canals - 4. Muhammad Tughlaq in Kashmir valley Codes: A BCD ABC D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 2 Q76. Which one among the following was a reason for which the French could not succeed in India in the 18th century? (a) They sided with the weak Indian sides such as Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jang (b) Dupleix was called back at a crucial time (c) They conspired against the Indian powers (d) Their trading company was heavily dependent on the French Government Q77. Consider the following statements about the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 1. It was related to a dispute between the workers and the European mill owners regarding hours of work. 2. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on strike. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

MockTime.com Q78. Who among the following Governor Generals formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan? (a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord William Bentinck Q79. Which one among the following books was authored by a lady of the Mughal Royal House? (a) Akbar Nama (b) Babur Nama (c) Humayun Nama (d) Badshah Nama Q80. Statement I: Sculptures of the Gandhara School stylistically are typically linked to the Greco-Roman and the Parthian art of Iran. Statement II: The earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat valley pre-dated the Kushana period, which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already wellestablished in the pre-Kushana period. (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q81. Which of the following did not constitute part of the army reforms of Sher Shah? (a) Keeping a large army at the centre (b) Introduction of a swiftly moving artillery (c) Cash payment to soldiers (d) Introduction of the practice of branding horses Q82. Consider the following statements about Sher Shah‘s administration 1. He divided his empire into Sarkars, which were further subdivided into Parganas. 2. The Sarkars and the Parganas were directly administered by Sher Shah without the help of any other officials. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q83. Consider the following statements concerning the initial phase of the Industrial Revolution in England. 1. England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore were plentifully available to be used in industry. 2. Until the 18th century, there was a scarcity of usable iron. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q84. Statement I: The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 adversely affected the financial conditions of the sepoys. Statement II: The sepoys had to pay higher taxes on the land where their family members stayed in Awadh. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Q85. Match the following List I List II A. Aurangabad - 1. Auroville B. Guwahati - 2. Sarnath C. Puducherry - 3. Ellora temples D. Varanasi - 4. Nilanchal hills Codes A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 Q86. Which one of the following States of India is the largest producer of lignite coal? (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu Q87. Assertion Physiological density is preferable to arithmetic density as an index of population density. Reason (R) Physiological

MockTime.com density is based on arable land while arithmetic density is based on total area. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q88. Which water body separates Australia from New Zealand? (a) Cook Straits (b) Megallan (c) Tasman Sea (d) Great Barrier Reef Q89. Match the following List I List II (River) (Source) A. Ganga - 1. Amarkantak B. Son - 2. Gaumukh C. Godavari - 3. Mahabaleshwar D. Krishna - 4. Trimbakeshwer Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 4 5 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 Q90. Which is the correct arrangement of the following rivers from North to South? (a) Godavari, Penner, Cauveri, Periyar (b) Penner, Godavari, Periyar, Cauveri (c) Godavari, Cauveri, Penner, Periyar (d) Cauveri, Godavari, Periyar, Penner Q91. Consider the following statements 1.The Earth does not move along its orbit at a constant rate. 2. The Earth moves fastest at perihelion and slowest at aphelion. The above statemen ts are true of which one of the following laws? (a) Kepler's second law (b) Newton's second law of motion (c) Ohm's law (d) Newton's law of gravitation Q92. Statement I Wind is deflected to the right in Northern Hemisphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere from its normal course. Statement II Earth rotates from Westto-East. (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Q93. Which among the following monoculture crops provide(s) immediate cash to the farmers? 1. Tea in Asom 2. Rubber in Africa 3. Sugarcane in Malaysia 4. Coffee in Brazil (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Q94. A nautical mile is equal to (a) 5060 feet (b) 5280 feet (c) 6060 feet (d) 6080 feet Q95. South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the East of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to forego a day and shift to the time zone on its West. The reason for this shifting is to (a) facilitate smooth internal administration throughout the country (b) attain political stability in the country (c) facilitate trade with Australia and New Zealand (d) promote tourism industry in the country Q96. What are G arboreum, G herbaceum, G hirsutum and G barbadense whose all the four species are cultivated in india ? (G = Gossypium) (a) Species of wool (b) Species of cotton (c) Species of silk (d) Species of jute Q97. Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular India because 1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells 2. rivers are rainfed 3. of compact nature of population and agricultural fields Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Q98. During the recent venus transit (June 2012) bracket, the planet appeared as a tiny

MockTime.com black circle moving on the Sun. The black colour on the Sun is because the planet (a) is black in colour (b) obstructed all light from the Sun (c) was invisible due to bright rays from the Sun (d) behaved as a black hole during its transit Q99. Which one among the following is a cold ocean current? (a) Canary current (b) Brazil current (c) Gulf stream (d) Kuroshio current Q100. Which of the following statements about Nathu la Pass are correct? 1. It links Sikkim with Tibet. 2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk Route. 3. It was reopened in the year 2006. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q101. Which of the following are UNESCO recognised world heritage sites? 1. Caves of Ajanta. 2. Temple and Caves at Ellora. 3. Mandapas of Mahabalipurarn. 4. Caves of Kanheri. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Q102. What would be the influence on the weather conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high pressure develops over the NorthWestern part of India? 1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this high pressure area. 2. The Northern plain would become cold. 3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow during the day time. 4. There would be torrential rains brought by thunderstorms. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these

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Q103. Match the following List I List II A. M F Hussain - 1. Tabla B. Zakir Hussain - 2. Classical dance C. Ulhas Kashalkar - 3. Painting D. Yamini Krishnamurty - 4. Vocal classical Codes A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 Q104. Who among the following has been awarded the 'Officer of the Legion of Honour,' the highest civilian distinction of the Government of France? (a) NR Narayana Murthy (b) Ratan Tata (c) KM Birla (d) Mukesh Ambani Q105. Match the following List I (City) List II (Stadium) A. Bengaluru - 1. Sawai Mansingh B. Chennai - 2. Sardar Patel c. Motera - 3. Chinnaswami D. Jaipur - 4. Chidambaram Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 2 4 1 Q106. The year 2009 is being celebrated by the UN as (a) International Year of Reconciliation (b) International Year of Astronomy (c) Both (d) and Q107. Bluetooth technology allows (a) wireless communications between equipments (b) signal transmission on mobile phones only (c) landline to mobile phone communication (d) satellite television communication Q108. Consider the following paragraph and idenitify the person referred to therein using the code given below She joined the diplomatic corps in 1949 and became the first woman dipolmat of India. She was the Ambassador to Hungary, Ghana and the Netherlands. (a) CB Muthamma

MockTime.com (b) Nirupama Rao (c) Chokila lyar (d) Meira Kumar Q109. Which one of the following is the central theme of the Chipko Movement, started by Sunderlal Bahuguna in 1973? (a) Conservation of river water (b) Protection of birds (c) Protection of cheetahs (d) Conservation of forests Q110. Which one of the following statements regarding FIFA World Cup, 2010 is not correct? (a) South Africa became the first host nation to fail to qualify for the tournament's second round (b) The tournament was the culmination of a qualification process that began in August 2007 (c) This is the first time that the tournament was hosted by an African nation (d) Zakumi the official mascot for the FIFA World Cup. 2010 is an African bush el ephant Q111. Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act makes a paradigm shift from the previous wage employment programmes by (a) focusing on all-round development of the rural people. (b) providing wage employment in rural areas a legal binding for the State Governments (c) providing a statutory guarantee of wage employment. (d) augmenting food security through wage employment in rural areas Q112. The term used to describe the process by which an outsider, immigrant or subordinate group becomes indistinguishably integrated into the dominant host society, is knwon as (a) Accommodation (b) Cultural imperialism (c) Acculturation (d) Adaptation Q113. Consider the following information and identify from the code given below the legendary Hollywood actress who is also remembered as a champion for a number of charitable causes, notably the fight against AIDS. She appeared is more than 50 films and won three Oscars including one for her

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performance in 'Butterfield 8' and another for 'Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf?' The Londonborn actress was a star at age 12, a bride and a divorcee at 18, a screen goddess at 19 and a widow at 26. (a) Ingrid Bergman (b) Elizabeth Taylor (c) Katharine Hepburn (d) Nicole Kidman Q114. Which one among the following companies received Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011? (a) BCCL (b) NTPC (c) SAIL (d) TISCO Q115. The Treaty on Integrated Development of Mahakali River was signed between India and (a) Pakistan (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh Q116. Who among the following was declared as the immediate future President of China in the 18th National Congress of the Communist Party of China held in November, 2012? (a) Zhang Dejiang (b) Xi Jinping (c) Liu Yunshan (d) Li Keqiang Q117. Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not correct? (a) A group of developed countries (b) An integral part of the United Nations (c) Outside the World Bank and IMF (d) An offshoot of G-7 Q118. With which one among the following countries, did India sign a Memorandum of Understanding on Cooperation in the field of Election Management and Administration (on April 12, 2013 in New Delhi)? (a) Japan (b) Mauritius (c) Thailand (d) Sri Lanka Q119. Consider the following statements about UN Frontline Workers Global Leadership Award

MockTime.com 1. Martha Dodray, an auxiliary nurse and midwife from Bihar, was conferred the Award in the year 2013. 2. Martha Dodray was awarded for her dedicated service in the bird flu affected areas of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q120. Consider the following statements about 'Project Mausam': l. The Project was launched in June 2014 by the Ministry of External Affairs. 2. At the macro level, the project aims to reconnect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced understanding of cultural values and concerns; while at the micro level, the focus is on understanding national cultures in their regional maritime milieu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. a 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. b 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. A 59. C 60. A 61. a 62. D 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. b 78. b 79. c 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. c 89. d 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. b 101. b 102. a 103. a 104. a 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. a 109. d 110. d 111. c 112. c 113. b 114. c 115. b 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. a 120. b . 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. The flavour of apples is mainly due to the ethanol (C2H5OH). 6. 'Misch metal' alloyed with iron is used in the cigarettes lighters. Misch metal is an alloy of cerium (50% ), lanthanum (25% ),

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neodymium (18%), praseodymium (5% ) and other rare metals. 7. Vulcanisation is a process in which natural rubber is treated with3-5% sulphur. It introduces sulphur bridges between polymer chains thereby increasing its tensile strength, elasticity and resistance to abrasion. 8. Alloy Constituent Solder Lead and tin Brass Copper and zinc Bronze Copper and tin Steel Iron and carbon 9. Ethyl mercaptan or thioethanol (C2H5 SH) is added during filling of LPG cylinders. It is a strong smelling compound and help in the detection of gas leakage. 10. In lemon juice citric acid is present. Hence, acids are conductors of electricity. The aqueous solution of lime juice conducts electricity due to the presence of ions in it. 11. The carbon dioxide reacts with the lime water to form calcium carbonate that is insoluble. CaO CO CaCO + ¾¾® ¯23 This substance precipitate out of solution making the lime water cloudy. 12. 13. Graphite and graphite powder are a naturally occurring form of carbon which serves as an industrial lubricant. 14. Exfoliation involves the removal of the oldest dead skin cells on the skin's outermost surface and has been used for many years to help maintain healthy skin. It can be achieved through mechanical or chemical means. 15. 16. 17. Steam burns are more serious than burns from boiling water even though both are at 100°C becasue when steam condenses it give up very high heat energy i.e. additional 22.6 × 105 joule of heat (latent heat of vapourisation) compared to boiling water. 18. An Earthquake is the result of a sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves. 19. As the passenger tosses the coin, it goes up and is in motion with the initial speed of the train but if the train is accelerated, so its speed increases. But the coin is in the air with initial speed of train, so the train slightly moves forward from the coin with the person and coin falls behind him. It happens when train is moving with accelerated motion. 20. It will heat the room because the heat removed from the inside is released into the room, counter acting any cooling, plus the

MockTime.com energy that is used to operate the compressor eventually winds up being heat, therefore increasing the room temperature. 21. When deep sea fishes are brought to the surface of the sea, their bodies burst, this is because the blood in their bodies flows at very high speed. 22. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is called simple harmonic motion with time period depending on the density of the liquid. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Parliament passed the 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill relating to the educational rights of children. By virtue of 86th Constitutional amendment act (12th December 2002) Article 21A was amended by the Constitution in order to introduce Right to Education as a fundamental right. The Act provides for free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years. It came into force on 1st April 2010. 31. According to Article 316 (a)of the Indian Constitution, the chairman and the members of the UPSC are appointed by the president. Under Article 316 (c) a person who holds office as a member of a Public Service Commission shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be ineligible for re-appointment to that office. 32. The legislative assembly of the concerned state recommends to the parliament for the abolition of the legislative council in a state (Article 169). 33. Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of the Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the new Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker. Protem speaker is mainly an operating and temporary speaker. 34. New issues that dominate the middle class led social agenda today are price rise, progressive taxation, and the Indo -USA nuclear deal. 35. As per Gadgil formula a special category state gets preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks. The special category states get significant excise duty concessions and thus help these states attract large number of industrial units to

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establish manufacturing facilities within their territory. 90% of the central assistance is treated as grant and remaining 10% is considered as loan unlike other states which get 30% grant and 70% loan. 36. The U.S. court system is divided into two administratively separate systems, the federal and the state, each of which is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government. One of the unique features of the Indian Constitution is that, notwithstanding the adoption of a federal system and existence of Central Acts and State Acts in their respective spheres, it has generally provided for a single integrated system of Courts to administer both Union and State laws. At the apex of the entire judicial system, exists the Supreme Court of India below which are the High Courts in each State or group of States. Below the High Courts, lies a hierarchy of Subordinate Courts. 37. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not is to be decided by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha may discuss the Annual Financial Statement. It has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants. 38. The right to information includes · Any document, manuscript and file · Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; · Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm (whether enlarged or not). · Any other material produced by a computer or any other device It does not include taking photograph of files. 39. The grounds for disqualification under the AntiDefection Law are as follows: If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission. As a pre condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned by his party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident. As per the 1985 Act, a 'defection' by one-third of the elected members of a political party was considered a 'merger'. Finally, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this. So now at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour

MockTime.com of a "merger" for it to have validity in the eyes of the law. 40. The Rajinder Sachar Committeewas appointed in 2005 by the then Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singhto prepare a report on the latest social, economic and educational condition of the Muslim community of India. Srikrishna Commission was constituted by the Government of Maharashtrafor investigating the causes of the Bombay Riots. Ranganath Misra Commission was constituted by the Government of India on 29 October 2004 to look into various issues related to Linguistic and Religious minorities in India. Nanavati commission was established by the Indian Government in 2000 to investigate the 1984 anti-Sikh riots. 41. According to article 112,the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement. 42. 43. 44. 45. Thyroid gland is one of the largest endocrine glands which is present in the neck. It is responsible to control body‘s metabolism, temperature, appetite and muscle strength, et c. 46. Methane (CH4) is produced in rice fields in the most prominent quantities. Because when organic matter decomposes without O2 in the water logged rice paddies, bacteria in the water produce methane. 47. In the normal human adult, heart beats at the rate of about72-80 per minute in the resting state. 48. Green plants absorb red and blue colour maximally. 49. Systolic pressure in an adult man is120 mm Hg whereas diastolic pressure is80 mm Hg normally. High or low blood pressure can create serious conditions in humans. 50. The excess fertilizer creates exosmosis in the plant tissue causing plasmolysis. Beacuse fertilizer produces hypotonic solution. It may cause cellulor damage to plant leading to plant death. 51. The hormones are secreted by endocrine glands of body. They can behave as coenzymes, e.g., thiamine pyrophosphate can

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help in the transfer of aldehye group. Enzymes can be protein or steroid in composition. 52. After raining for30-40 minutes, the pollutants present in atmosphere come down with raining water that raise its pH upto5.6 making it acidic in nature. 53. Transpiration is a process like evaporation part of the water cycle and it is the loss of water vapour from different parts of plants, particularly in leaves but also in stems, flowers and roots. 54. The person will suffer from deficiency of protein because potato has very little amonut of protein. Although vitamins, fat and carbohydrate content in potato are relatively high. 55. Whole milk contains some vitamin A, however levels in semi-skimmed and skimmed milks are much lower. 56. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is not a component of biogas. 57. 58. All statements are correct. 59. Primary sector-Agriculture, fishing, mining and quarrying Secondary sectorManufacturing and construction, Gas and water supply Tertiary sector- trade, transport etc, finance & real estate, community and personnel services 60. When marginal cost is less than average cost, average cost must be falling. When marginal cost exceeds average cost must be rising. The marginal cost and average cost curves are related to each other. 61. 62. dMarx was initially in the Young Hegelian camp and like Feuerbach, rejected the spiritual basis. Marx believed that alienation is a systematic result of capitalism. Essentially, there is an "exploitation of men by men" where the division of labour creates an economic hierarchy. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Government of India Act 1909 introduced separate and discriminatory electorates for Muslims. This was for the first time that, electorate for returning to the representatives to the councils was decided on the basis of class & community. For the central council,

MockTime.com one more category Muslims was added. This was for the first time that the seats in the legislative bodies were reserved on the basis of religion for Muslims. This is called Communal representation. 71. Cabinet Mission was composed of three Cabinet Ministers of England • Sir Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India. • Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, • A .V Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty • Sir Cyril Radcliffe was appointed to chair two Boundary Commissions in June 1947 -one for Bengal and one for Punjab. 72. Fa-hien was a Chinese monk who travelled India during the age of Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya. He travelled during C 399-414. Fa-hien wanted to go to India to search for the treatises of the Vinaya Pitaka, the monastic rules of BUDDHISM. Travelling through Central Asia and Northwest India, Fa-hien reached northern India and then visited the holy Buddhist sites located in the Ganges valley: Kapilavastu, the birthplace of Buddha; Bodhgaya, the site of Buddha's enlightenment; Sarnath, where Buddha preached his first sermon, and Kushinagara, the place of Buddha's nirvana. 73. Muhammad Ali Jinnah drafted the constitution of Muslim league 'The green Book'. ted by Maharajah Hari Singh of Jammu and Kashmir, on 26 October 1947. By executing this document Maharajah Hari Singh agreed to accede to the Dominion of India. 74. British did not adopt Free trade policy to exploit the Indians economically. 75. Option c is correct answer. 76. Jean-Baptiste Colbert, founded the French East India Company in 1664 with the intention of rivalling the success of the English and the Dutch in India.Their trading company was heavily dependent on the French government. 77. In February March 1918, there was a situation of conflict between the Gujarat Mill owners and workers on the question of Plague Bonus of 1917. The Mill Owners wanted to withdraw the bonus while the workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill Owners were willing to give only 20% wage hike. In March 1918, under the leadership of Gandhi, there was a strike in the cotton mills. In this strike Gandhi used the weapon of Hunger strike. The result was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage increase.

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78. Triple Alliance consisted of British, Nizam and Marathas against Tipu sultan in 179192. 79. Gulbadan Begum (daughter of Babur) was the author of Humayun Nama. 80. Both the statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.Gandhara School was based on Greco-Roman norms. It is also known as Graeco-Buddhist School of art. The Buddhist sculpture produced by the Kushans in the Swat valley was referred to as Gandharan, and was influenced by Graeco-Roman elements. The ancient kingdoms of Udyana (Swat) and Gandhara (Peshawar) were formed by the Kushans, who were of Chinese origin and took over the area in the first century BC. Under the king Kanishka, who ruled from around 100 AD, Buddhism flourished in Gandhara; at one point there were 1,400 monasteries in the lower Swat Valley alone. 81. Sher Shah did not introduce swiftly moving artillery. Sher Shah effected many military reforms in order to save the country from foreign invasions and internal revolt. With the object of organising the Army, Sher Shah began to pay the soldiers their salary in cash; maintained their respective roles; brandished the horses etc. 82. Sher Shah divided the entire Kingdom in 47 divisions and called them "Sarkars". These Sarkars were divided into Parganas. Every Pargana was under a Shikqdar, who looked into the law and order of his Pargana. 83. The widespread availability of coal and iron was a significant factor in Europe's Industrial Revolution of the late 18th and early 19th centuries. 84. The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie on the pretext of maladministration left thousands of nobles, officials, retainers and soldiers jobless. Moreover, the annexation of Awadh adversely affected the sepoy's purse. He had to pay higher taxes on the land his family held in Awadh. 85. 1. Aurangabad- Ellora temples 2. Guwahati- Nilanchal hills 3. PuducherryAuroville 4. Varanasi- Sarnath 86. Lignite coal is mainly produced in two states - Tamil Nadu and Gujarat. Neyveli is the lignite field in Tamil Nadu which is located in South Arcol district. Neyveli is the largest lignite coal mine of India. 87.

MockTime.com 88. The Tasman Sea separates Australia from New Zealand. 89. 1. Ganga - Gaumukh 2. SonAmarkantak 3. Godavari- Trimbakeshwar 4. Krishna- Mahabaleshwar 90. Correct sequence is Godavari- PennerCauveriPeriyar The Godavari is the second longest river in India after the river Ganga. It originates from Western Ghats of central India near Nasik in Maharashtra.The Penner originates from Nandi Hills in Chikballapur District of Karnataka. This river flows from north as well as east corners across Andhra Pradesh.The Cauvery originates from Western Ghats in Karnataka and flows generally south and east through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.The Periyar originates from Western Ghats range near the border with Tamil Nadu and flows in Kerala. 91. The point of Kepler's IInd law is that, although the orbit is symmetric, the motion is not. A planet speeds up as it approaches the Sun, gets its greatest velocity when passing closest, then slows down again and the earth moves fastest at perihelion and slowest at aphelion. 92. As air moves from high to low pressure in the northern hemisphere, it is deflected to the right.In the southern hemisphere, air moves from high to low pressure and deflected to the left due to Coriolis force. The earth's rotation (West to East) deflects the direction of the wind to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. 93. Cash crops are those which are produced for the purpose of generating cash or money. The products are therefore intended to be marketed for profit.Sugarcane and coffee are cash crops which provide immediate cash to farmers. 94. A nautical mile is based on the circumference of the planet Earth. If you were to cut the Earth in half at the equator, you could pick up one of the halves and look at the equator as a circle. You could divide that circle into 360 degrees. You could then divide a degree into 60 minutes. A minute of arc on the planet Earth is 1 nautical mile. A nautical mile is1.1508 miles or 6,076 feet. 95. The move is designed to simplify the country's trade relations. Samoa's biggest trading partners are situated on the opposite side of the dateline. Despite their geographical proximity, Australia and New Zealand are nearly one calendar day ahead. Samoa will switch time zones by redrawing

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the international dateline. The change will occur at midnight on December 29, 2011. 96. These species of cotton are as follows. i. Gossypium arboreum, commonly called tree cotton, is a species of cotton native to India, Pakistan and other tropical and subtropical regions of the Old World. ii. Gossypium herbaceum, commonly known as Levant cotton, is a species of cotton native to the semi-arid regions of sub-Saharan Africa and Arabia. iii. Gossypium hirsutum is the most widely planted species of cotton in the United States. iv. Gossypium barbadense is also known as extra long staple (ELS) cotton. Varieties of ELS cotton include American Pima, Egyptian Giza, and Indian Suvin etc. 97. The tank irrigation is practised mainly in peninsular India due to the following reasons: 1. The undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells. 2. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantity. 3. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. Therefore, they cannot supply water to canals throughout the year. 4. There are several streams which become torrential during rainy season. The only way to make best use of this water is to impound it by constructing bunds and building tanks. Otherwise this water would go waste to the sea. 5. The scattered nature of population and agricultural fields also favour tank irrigation. 98. The black colour on the sun is because of a planet which obstructs all light from the sun. 99. Canary Current is a cold current which blows in the North Atlantic Ocean. 100. Capillary water is retained on the soil particles by surface forces. It is held so strongly that gravity cannot remove it from the soil particles. The molecules of capillary water are free and mobile and are present in a liquid state. Plant roots are able to absorb it. Capillary water is, therefore, also known as available water. 101. 102. 103. M.F Hussian- Painting Zakir Hussian Tabla Ulhas Kashalkar- Vocal Classical Yamini Krishnamurty- Classical dance 104. Narayana Murthy is an Indian IT industrialist and the co-founder of Infosys who was conferred the Officer of the Legion of Honour, the highest civilian distinction of the

MockTime.com government of France. The Legion of Honour is the highest civilian distinction that can be conferred in France regardless of the social status or the nationality of the recipients. It was created in 1802 by Napoleon Bonaparte. 105. Bengluru - Chinnaswami Chennai Chidambaran Motera - Sardar Patel Jaipur Sawai Mansingh 106. 107. Bluetooth technology allows wireless communications between equipments. 108. Chohivia Belliappa Muthamma was the first woman to clear the Indian Civil Services examinations. She was also the first woman to join the Indian Foreign Service. She was the first Indian woman diplomat as well. She became the first Indian woman Ambassador also. Muthamma was posted as India's Ambassador to Hungary, Ghana and Netherlands. 109. Chipko Movement was a non-violent movement aimed at protection and conservation of trees and forests from being destroyed. The villagers used to hug the trees and protect them from woodcutters from cutting them. It was started in 1970s. 110. The mascot of the 2010 FIFA World Cup is a leopard, and goes by the name Zakumi. The leopard was chosen as the mascot for the 2010 World Cup since the same is commonly found all over the country of South Afri ca. 111. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at enhancing the livelihood security of people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of wage employment in a financial year to a rural household who volunteer to do unskilled manual work. MGNREGA was passed in the legislation on 25th August 2005. The proposal provides a lawful assurance for 100 days of service in each fiscal year to mature members of every rural family. 112. Acculturation is a process in which members of one cultural group adopt the beliefs and behaviours of another group. Although acculturation is usually in the direction of a minority group adopting habits and language patterns of the dominant group, it is the processes of change in artifacts, customs and beliefs that result from the contact of two or more cultures. 113. Dame Elizabeth Rosemond "Liz" Taylor was a BritishAmerican actress. She won the Academy Award for Best Actress for Butterfield 8 (1960), played the title role in

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Cleopatra (1963). For Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf? (1966) Taylor won a second Academy Award. From the mid-1980s, Taylor championed HIV and AIDS programs; she cofounded the American Foundation for AIDS Research in 1985, and The Elizabeth Taylor AIDS Foundation in 1991. 114. Maharatna Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) received the prestigious Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011. The award was presented to SAIL in recognition of its initiatives and achievements in the field of environment management. SAIL in the last four years succeeded in reducing particulate emissions by 52% , specific water consumption by 11% and specific energy consumption by 5% , and increased solid waste utilization by 18% . 115. The Mahakali Treaty, signed in February 1996 between India and Nepal, pertains to sharing water of a river by the same name. The Mahakali Treaty basically aims at an integrated development of water resources in the Mahakali River and has been finalized on the basis of equal partnership. 116. Xi Jinping is the General Secretary of the Communist Party of China, the President of the People's Republic of China, and the Chairman of the Central Military Commission. He assumed office on 15 November 2012. 117. The G20 is a bloc of developing nations. It was established on 20 August 2003. 118. Mauritius and India have signed a MoU to cooperate in the field of Election Management and Administration on 12 April 2013. 119. Martha Dodray worked in the field of polio eradication. 120. Project 'Mausam' is a Ministry of Culture project to be implemented by Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), New Delhi as the nodal coordinating agency with support of Archaeological Survey of India and National Museum as associate bodies. The endeavour of Project 'Mausam'is to position itself at two levels: • At the macro level, it aims to re-connect and reestablish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced understanding of cultural values and concerns; • At the micro level, the focus is on understanding national cultures in their regional maritime milieu.

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Islands suffering extreme habitat destruction include 1.New Zealand 2.West Africa 3.Philippines 4.Madagascar (a) 1,2,3 (b) 1,2,4 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,3,4 Q2. Maputaland - Pondoland- Albany is a biodiversity hotspot found in: (a) Asia Pacific (b) South America (c) Europe and Central Asia (d) Africa Q3. The biodiversity hotspot that encompasses Mexico‘s main mountain chains, isolated mountaintop island in Baja California and southern United States is (a) Mesoamerica (b) Caribbean Islands (c) Madrean Pine-oak Woodlands (d) California Florist Province Q4. Forests ecosystems that have suffered a tremendous destruction of habitat comprise (a) Tropical deciduous forests (b) Temperate forests (c) Tropical rain forests (d) Neither of the above

(a) hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and nitric acid (concentrated) (b) hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and sulphuric acid (concentrated) (c) nitric acid (concentrated) and sulphuric acid (concentrated) (d) hydrochloric acid (dilute) and sulphuric acid (dilute) Q8. The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc., is (a) nylon (b) teflon (c) orlon (d) bakelite Q9. A body is charged negatively. It implies that (a) it has lost some of its protons (b) it has acquired some electrons from outside (c) it has lost some of its electrons (d) None of the above Q10. From which one among the following water sources, the water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride? (a) Ground water (b) River water (c) Pond water (d) Rain water Q11. On the labels of the bottles, some soft drinks are claimed to be acidity regulators. They regulate acidity using (a) carbon dioxide (b) bicarbonate salts (c) Both (d) and

Q6. What is the pH value of pure water? (a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 10

Q12. What are the elements which are liquids at room temperature and standard pressure? 1. Helium 2. Mercury 3. Chlorine 4. Bromine Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2 and3 (b) 2,3 and4 (c) 2 and4 (d) 1 and3

Q7. Aqua-regia used by alchemists to separate silver and gold is a mixture of

Q13. In Tritium (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N) respectively are

Q5. Nail varnish remover generally contains which one of the following? (a) Vinegar (b) Benzene (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Acetone

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(a) 1 P and1 N (b) l P and2 N (c) l Pand3 N (d) 2 P and l N Q14. Consider the following statements: 1.Sugar chars on heating. 2.On heating, sugar loses water. 3.Sugar is a carbohydrate. 4.Table sugar is made up of glucose and fructose. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 only (b) land 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 4 Q15. Consider the following statements: 1.Nanotechnology deals with the devices having sizes of the order of 10-9 m. 2.Nanodevices are useful in drug delivery. 3.Nanoparticles can be formed by gold atoms. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 only (b) land 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 only Q16. "LSD" stands for (a) lysergic acid diethylamide (b) lithium-sodium devices (c) lanthanide series diatoms (d) low starch drugs Q17. Why is it difficult to see through fog? (a) Rays of light suffer total internal reflection from the fog droplets (b) Rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets (c) Fog droplets absorb light (d) The refractive index of fog is extremely high Q18. Laser is a device to produce (a) a beam of white light (b) coherent light (c) microwaves (d) X-rays Q19. As the sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the rays are scattered by tiny particles of dust, pollen, soot and other minute particulate matters present there. However, when we look up, the sky appears blue during mid-day because (a) blue light is scattered most

MockTime.com (b) blue light is absorbed most (c) blue light is reflected most (d) ultraviolet and yellow component of sunlight combine

Q20. The focal length of convex lens is (a) the same for all colours (b) shorter for blue light than for red (c) shorter for red light than for blue (d) maximum for yellow light Q21. A bus travels at a speed of 50 km/h to go from its origin of its destination at a distance of 300 km and travels at a speed of 60 km/h to return to the origin. What is the average speed of the bus? (a) 54.55 km/h (b) 55 km/h (c) 55.55 km/h (d) 54 km/h Q22. Dirty cloths containing grease and oil stains are cleaned by adding detergents to water. Stains are removed because detergent (a) reduces drastically the surface tension between water and oil (b) increases the surface tension between water and oil (c) increases the viscosity of water and oil (d) decreases the viscosity in detergent mixed water Q23. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p and displacement q would come out as (a) a straight line (b) a parabola (c) a circle (d) an ellipse Q24. Echoes of ultrasonic waves are used (a) For measuring the depth of sea beds (b) For detecting flaws in the interior of solids (c) In medical diagnosis (d) For all the above Q25. Consider the following statements: 1.An incandescent lamp has a tungsten filament. 2.Tungsten is a very good conductor of electricity.

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Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both1 and 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q26. Which of the following is not a part of the Sun‘s atmosphere? (a) Chromospheres (b) Photosphere (c) Biosphere (d) Corona Q27. Rectangular strips of two metals A and B are riveted to make a bimetal strip. A. has higher expansively than B. When the bimetal strip is heated it (a) Remains unaffected (b) Bends with A on the convex side (c) Bends with B on the convex side (d) Gets unriveted Q28. In an electric circuit, the fuse wire should be 1.Always connected in the live (phase) wire 2.Made of a material of low melting point 3.Made of tungsten Which of the above statements/are correct? (a) 1 (b) 1,2 (c) 2,3 (d) 1,2,3 Q29. 3. Which one of the following statements in not correct? (a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years (b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only (c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor takes over (d) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India Q30. Consider the following statements 1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head. 2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.

MockTime.com 3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 Q31. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries? (a) Ministry of Culture (b) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Q32. The Sachar Committee Report pertains to (a) Indian federalism (b) Economic development of backward regions (c) Indian Muslims (d) OBC's Q33. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha (a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months (b) He/she can declare the government's policies only in the Rajya Sabha (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration (d) He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok Sabha Q34. DIRECTIONS : The following questions are based on the following passage. A government in a democratic country has to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and n oisy discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal with the USA), rather than on

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the terrible general inheritance of India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women), then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only those particular new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of democracy. 83. W hat is the minimum mandate of a democratic government? (a) Respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and threats to survival by decisive public action (b) Respond to demands of middle class pressure groups on an urgent basis (c) Preempt social agitations by enacting sensitive laws (d) Attend to severity threats that threaten national sovereignty Q35. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch. This is because (a) this mernbership does not affect the sovereign nature of the Indian Republic (b) this membership only shows that the British ruled over India (c) members of the association are sovereign and independent (d) it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the association Q36. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985. the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are (a) appointed to pubic services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the Defence services (b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts (c) members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or any state legislatures (d) members of the Defence services Q37. Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling,

MockTime.com price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? (a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom of Press (b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B (c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution (d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Article 19 of the Constitution Q38. Consider the following statements 1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies. 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three NorthEastern States of India, have only one seat each in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q39. Which one among the following is not a constitutional body in India? (a) Comptroller and Auditor General (b) National Commissioner for religious and Linguistic Minorities (c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes (d) National Human Rights Commission Q40. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India cas a Fundamental Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such? (a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business (b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country (c) Freedom of association and union (d) Freedom of the press Q41. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annual the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include 1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new states)

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2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states) 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these Q42. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights? (a) Keshavanand Bharati Case (b) Golaknath Case (c) Minerva Mills Case (d) Maneka Gandhi Case Q43. One of the following does not deal with atrocities on women (a) Bodhisattva Gautam Subra Chakroborty (1996) (b) Chairman Railway Board Chandrima Das (2000) (c) Maneka Gandhi Union of India (1978) (d) Visakha State of Rajasthan (1997) Q44. Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee 1.Is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India 2.Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area 3.Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Q45. Which one of the following is not a constituent of biogas? (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide Q46. Consider the following statements. 1.Cigarette smoking exposes a person to benzene.

MockTime.com 2. Benzene is a known carcinogen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q47. The terms lubb and dubb relates to which one of the following? (a) Heart (b) Eyes (c) Teeth (d) Lungs Q48. Which one of the following plants is preferred for mixed cropping in order to enhance the bioavailability of nitrogen? (a) Wheat (b) Gram (c) Maize (d) Barley Q49. Anthrax is a disease of human and cattle with a potential for biological warfare. It is caused by (a) bacterium (b) virus (c) protozoan (d) fungus Q50. Itching due to insect bite is caused by (a) tormtc acid (b) acetic acid (c) lactic acid (d) maleic acid Q51. Which among the following statement about biofertilizers are correct? 1.Azotobacter is one of the nitrogen fixing bacteria used as a biofertilizer. 2. They have to be applied to the leaves of the plant only. 3.They alter the chemical composition of the soil. 4.They can be used along with organic fertilizers. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and4 (b) 1,2 and4 (c) 2 and3 (d) 1,2,3 and4 Q52. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for the development of healthy teeth but

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causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities? (a) Iron (b) Chloride (c) Fluoride (d) Potassium Q53. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) All proteins are enzymes (b) All enzymes are proteins (c) None of the enzymes is protein (d) None of the proteins is enzyme Q54. Which one among the following groups of animals maintains constant body temperature in changing environmental conditions? (a) Birds (b) Fishes (c) Amphibians (d) Reptiles Q55. Which of the statements given below are correct? 1.A person having blood group 'A' can donate blood to persons having blood group 'A' and blood group 'AB'. 2. A person having blood group 'AB' can donate blood to persons having blood groups 'A', 'B', 'AB' or 'O'. 3.A person with blood group 'O' can donate blood to persons having any blood group. 4.A person with blood group 'O' can receive blood from the person of any of the blood groups. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2,3 and4 (b) l and2 only (c) 3 and4 only (d) 1 and3 only Q56. A mother of blood group O has a group O child. What could be the blood group of father of the child? (a) Only O (b) A or B or O (c) A or B (d) Only AB Q57. As per the Economic Survey 20072008, which one of the following is the largest source of revenue of the Government of India? (a) Excise Duty

MockTime.com (b) Personal income Tax (c) Corporation Tax (d) Customs Duties Q58. Consider the following statements about Sinking Fund 1. It is a method of repayment of public debt. 2. It is created by the government out of budgetary revenues every year. Winch of the statements given above is/are contact? (a) Oniy 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q59. The government can influence private sector expenditure by 1. taxation 2. subsidies 3. macro-economic policies 4. grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Q60. The production function of a firm will change whenever (a) input price changes (b) the firm employs more of any input (c) the firm increases its level of output (d) the relevant technology changes Q61. Consider the following statements relating to the World Bank: 1. The World Bank was established in 1946, which is headquartered in New York. 2. The World Bank Group has set for itself the goal to end extreme poverty from the World by 2030. 3. The World Bank is a vital source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world. It. is not a bank in the ordinary sense but a unique partnership to reduce poverty and support development. 4. The World Bank Group comprises five institutions managed by their member countries in order to promote shared prosperity by fostering the income growth of the bottom 40% for every country. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4

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(d) 2 and 4 only Q62. Demand for a commodity refers to (a) Desire for that commodity (b) Need for that commodity (c) Quantity demanded of that commodity (d) Quantity demanded at certain price during any particular period of time Q63. The Government has undertaken grading and standardization of various agricultural products through the: (a) Food Corporation of India (b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (c) Indian Standards Institution (d) Central Statistical Organisation Q64. Which of the following is not one of the deficit financing methods in India? (a) Borrowing from RBI (b) Borrowing from commercial banks (c) Borrowing from IMF (d) Printing new currency Q65. Which among the following is not one of the important gold mines in the country? (a) Kolar (b) Hospet (c) Ramgiri (d) Hutti Q66. The SFURTI theme notified by the Government in October 2005 aims to (a) support renovation of heritage structures as tourist attraction (b) encourage sports and games among rural youth (c) fund civil society for promoting Right to Information (d) promote the regeneration of traditional industries Q67. Transfer payments refer to: (a) payments made without any quid pro quo (b) transferring wealth outside the country through fictitious payments (c) payments to employees at the time of transfer (d) money transferred by one sector to another Q68. Under the Compulsory Rolling System introduced by SEBI: (a) all shares have to be paid for on the day of purchase

MockTime.com (b) purchasers have to make advance payment for the shares (c) purchase can be set off against sales (d) payment has to be settled at the end of the third day after the trading day Q69. Consider the following statements 1. At the time of independence, the Government of India followed the calender based on Saka era. 2. The National Calendar commenced on Chaitra 1 Saka, 1879 corresponding to March 22, 1957 AD. Which ofthe statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q70. Match the following List I(Session of Indian National - List II (Venue) Congress) A. 1st session - 1. Allahabad B. 2nd session - 2. Madras C. 3rd session - 3. Calcutta D. 4th session - 4. Bombay Codes: A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 2 3 4 Q71. Which one of the following was the original name of Tansen, the famous musician in the court of Akbar? (a) Mahananda Pande (b) Lal Kalwant (c) Baz Bahadur (d) Ramtanu Pande Q72. Which British military officer defeated Tipu Sultan in India, Napolean Bonaparte in Europe and eventually, became the Duke of Wellington? (a) Arthur Wellesley (b) Robert Clive (c) Warren Hastings (d) Richard Wellesley Q73. ‗Use of white marble, long legs and slender frames, human beings as central

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characters and prominence of kings, princess and palaces‘ were the characteristic features of which one of the following ancient art forms of India? (a) Amaravati School of Art (b) Gandhara School of Art (c) Mathura School of Art (d) Pahari School of Art Q74. Which one of the following statements regarding the Revolt of 1857 is not correct? (a) The revolt was supported whole heartedly by the educated, elite Indian everywhere (b) The diverse elements which took part in the revolt were united by their hatred of British rule (c) The role of Hindu-Muslim unity in the revolt was acknowledged by many, including British officials (d) The revolt did not spread to South India Q75. Which one of the following statements about the teachings of Kabir is not correct? (a) He was not against pilgrimage and idol worship (b) He believed in universal love (c) He emphasised on one God and the spread of devotionalism (d) He did not consider it necessary to abandon the normal life of a householder Q76. Which of the following was/were reason/reasons for the success of European trading companies in South India, during the 17th century? 1. The presence of the Mughals in the South was not as much as in the North. 2. The Vijayanagara kingdom had been overthrown in the late 16th century. 3. The South had many small and weak states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 Q77. Which of the statements given below about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. It was related to Indigo plantations. 2. It started because the European planters oppressed the Zamindars. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

MockTime.com (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q78. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the Nizam of Hyderabad (b) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of the book, Unhappy India (c) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter to the Rani of Jhansi (d) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys March to Delhi Q79. Which one among the following statements is not true of the jajmani system? (a) It was a non-market exchange system (b) It was practised in many villages and regions during the pre-colonial period (c) It was introduced under pressure from the colonial regime (d) It was incorporated into wider networks of exchange through which agricultural products and other goods circulated Q80. Statement I: The Permanent Zamindari Settlement of land created a new class of landlords. Statement II: The new class of landlords became strong political allies of the British and were interested in the continuance of British dominion. (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q81. Rajtarangini, authored by Kalhan, describes the history of (a) Gujarat (b) Bengal (c) Kashmir (d) Punjab DIRECTIONS (Qs. 196-200): The following questions consists of two Statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below Codes

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Q82. The University of Nalanda was set-up by which Gupta ruler? (a) Kumaragupta II (b) Kumaragupta I (c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta Q83. Which one of the following was a temple built by the Chola Kings? (a) Brihadiswara Temple, Tanjavur (b) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai (c) Srirangam Temple, Thiruchirapalli (d) Durga Temple, Aihole Q84. Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda? 1. Rig Vedic religion can be described a naturalistic polytheism. 2. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta. 3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the house of the priest who was called yajaman. 4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kind – those conducted by the household and those that required rituals specialists. Select the correct answer using the code give below: (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Q85. For which one of the following is Sualkuchi famous? (a) Bird sanctuary (b) Temple city (c) Silk centre (d) Hill station Q86. Match the following List l (Multi purpose River Projects) List II (Hydel Power Station) A. Rihand - 1. Hirakund B. Gandak - 2. Balmikinagar C. Chambal - 3. Pipri D. Mahanadi - 4. Kota Codes A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3 Q87. Assertion Despite low evaporation and stable stratification of the atmosphere,

MockTime.com salinity is high in polar regions. Reason (R) Sea water freezes leaving the remaining water saline than before. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q88. In a significant climate responsive project, in which one of the following places recently an abandoned thermal power plant has been converted into a mega solar power enerating station which poised to give a huge fillip to India's renewable energy ambition? (a) Talcher (Odisha) (b) Namrup (Asom) (c) Jamuria (Paschim Bangal) (d) Jaisalmar (Rajasthan) DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 120-121): The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion ' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below. Q89. At high altitudes, pressure cooker is preferable for cooking, because the boiling point of water (a) reduces due to higher atmospheric pressure (b) reduces due to lower atmospheric pressure (c) increases due to reduced gravitational force (d) reduces due to increased ozone content in the atmosphere Q90. Consider the following features of a border district of India and identify the district using the code given below Situated at the height of 10000 feet, which is enchanted with scenic beauty, the district is surrounded by two nations in the North and South-West. River Nyamjangchu runs through it. Potato, maize and millet are the main crops of the district. Besides monasteries, tourist attractions of the district and its surrounding places include Sella Pass, PTSO, War memorial, Jaswant Garh etc. Losar is one of the prominent festivals of the district. (a) Lohit (b) Tawang (c) Kangra (d) West Sikkim

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Q91. Which one of the following countries does not have a border with China? (a) Myanmar (b) Afghanistan (c) Thailand (d) Kazakhstan Q92. What is the characteristic feature of Narmada Valley? (a) Volcanic origin (b) Structural origin (c) Glacial origin (d) Aeolian origin Q93. Why South-East Asia has the largest concentration of peasant population at the global scale? (a) The area is dominated by shifting cultivation due to favourable terrain character (b) Intensive subsistence farming is practised in the region (c) The region has favourable and healthier climate (d) The area has a large forested area which is cleared for cultivation of various crops Q94. The thermal equator is found (a) at the equator (b) South of the geographical equator (c) North of the geographical equator (d) at the tropic of cancer Q95. Consider the following statements 1.Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere. 2. Ozone layer lies 25 to 30 km above the surface of the Earth. 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. 4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Q96. What is the major role of a greenhouse gas that contributes to temperature rise of the Earth's surface? (a) Transparent to both incoming sunlight and outgoing infrared radiation (b) Stops both incoming sunlight and outgoing infrared radiation (c) Lets outgoing infrared radiation pass through but stops incoming sunlight

MockTime.com (d) Lets incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing infrared radiation Q97. Match the following Lis t I List II (River) (Tributary) A. Ganga -1. Chambal and Ken B. Indus -2. W ainganga and Indravati C. Yamuna -3. Chenab and Sutlej D.Godavari -4. Gomti and Kosi Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 Q98. Gaddis are (a) fishermen of Kerala (b) pastoralists of Arunachal Pradesh (c) shepherds Himachal Pradesh (d) nomads of Rajasthan desert Q99. Match the following . List I (Dam) List II (River) A. Ukai dam B. Bhakra dam C. Nagarjuna Sagar dam D. Pandoh dam 1. Beas 2. Krishna 3. Sutluj 4. Tapi (Tapti) Codes A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 Q100. In soil, water that, is readily available to plant roots is (a) gravitational water (b) capillary water (c) hygroscopic water (d) bound water Q101. Match the following Lis t I List II (Industrial production) (Place of production) A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow C. Chikkan Embroidery 3. Muradabad D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar Codes: A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4

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(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 Q102. On November 8, 2013, many people died in Philippines after a super typhoon ravaged the country. What was the name of the typhoon? (a) Haiyan (b) Utor (c) Phailin (d) Nesat Q103. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Hindalco Industries: Novelis (b) Tata Steel: Corus Group (c) Jet Airways: Air Sahara (d) Kingfisher Airlines: MDLR Airlines Q104. Match the following List l (Player) List II (Sport) A. Gagan Narang - 1. Archery B. Akhil Kumar - 2. Swimming C. Mangal Singh - 3. Boxing D. Virdhawal Khade - 4. Rifle Shooting Codes A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 Q105. Which one of the following is a medium range surface to air missile? (a) Trishul (b) Nag (c) Prithvi (d) Akash Q106. Consider the following statements about a famous autobiographical narrative The author of the book is/was the head of one of India's leading business houses and a Member of Rajya Sabha. In the book he embraced principles in which the creation of wealth, philanthropy and political leadership were all regarded as part of nation-building. Written in a style that is simple and translucent in its sincerity, the book brings alive an important era in the life of the nation, its changing social mores, evolving principles of corporate governance and enduring family values. Who among the following is the author of the book? (a) KK Birla (b) Dhiru Bhai Ambani (c) Jamshedji Tata

MockTime.com (d) LN Mittal Q107. Consider the following statements about concordat 1. It is an agreement between the Roman Catholic Church and the state. 2. The President of Brazil did not sign a Concordat during the Pope Benedict XVI's visit to Brazil in 2007. 3. Concordat of 2009 was signed between the Holy See and Portugal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q108. The major thrust of Jawahar Rozgar Yojna (JRY) is on (a) removal of poverty among the Scheduled Castes in rural areas (b) creating additional wage employment opportunities in rural areas (c) creating employment opportunities in urban areas (d) providing training to rural youth for selfemployment Q109. Consider the following paragraph and identify the person refferred to therein with the help of the code given below. After training under Ustad Abdul Rehman Khan of Patiala Gharana, he turned to Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan. ‗Memories Come Alive‘ is his autobiography. He was awarded Dada Saheb Phalke Award. (a) SD Burman (b) Bhupen Hazarika (c) Manna Dey (d) Bhimsen Joshi Q110. Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations Millennium Development Goals Report, 2010, is/ are correct? 1. The aggregate food availability globally was relatively good in the years 2008 and 2009. 2. There has been good progress in the last two decades in South Asia in reducing hunger levels and India is all set to achieve the millennium development goal. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q111. Statement I: In Vietnam War, Americans used powerful defoliants such as Agent Orange over large areas of dense forest and agricultural fields. Statement II: Defoliants are very dangerous war weapons which leave the forests and agricultural fields barren. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q112. Which one of the following is not a formal agency of social control? (a) Courts (b) Police (c) Family (d) Teachers Q113. In the year 2011, NASA launched a mission to study the moon from crust to core through its (a) Gravity Recovery and Interior Labocatory (b) Fast Auroral Snapshot Explorer Spacecraft (c) Ultraviolet Spectroscopic Explorer Spaceraft (d) Transition Region and Coronal Expl orer Spacecraft Q114. Consider the following statements 1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people. 2. Dorairajan Balasubramaniam was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q115. The Partnership Council was launched the Strategic Partnership Agreement signed in the year 2011 between India and (a) United States

MockTime.com (b) China (c) Maldives (d) Afghanistan Q116. Cosider the following statements During the last week of November 2012, Palestinian engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was done promarily to 1. Place the remains of Yasser Arafat in a mosque compound. 2. Confirm the prevailing suspicion that Israel had poisoned him. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q117. Which one among the following has been included as a parameter for the first time under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based on Central Pollution Control Board and IIT-Kanpur research, WHO guidelines and European Union limits and practices? (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Oxides of nitrogen (c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide Q118. Which one among the following was a major decision taken at the fifth BRICS summit held recently? (a) Establishment of a new develop- ment bank (b) Reformation of the United Nations (c) Common military exercise (d) Cultural exchange among the BRICS countries Q119. Internal Security Academy is located at (a) Nashik (b) Mount Abu (c) Hyderabad (d) Pune Q120. Consider the following statements about Star Alliance Network: 1. Established in the year 1997, it is the leading global airline network with the highest number of member airlines, daily flights, destinations and countries flown to. 2. Air India has recently joined the Star Alliance in a bid to garner more revenue.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. d 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. a 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. A 59. C 60. d 61. b 62. D 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. d 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. a 81. c 82. b 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. b 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. b 98. c 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. d 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. b 108. b 109. c 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. d 116. b 117. c 118. a 119. b 120. c 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Nail varnish remover generally contains acetone (CH3COCH3). 6. Pure water is neutral in nature hence, the pH value of pure water is7. 7. Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid in the ratio1:3 respectively. It is a very powerful oxidising mixture. 8. Polyacrylonitrile or orlon is used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters etc. It is a polymer of acrylonitrile or vinyl cyanide. 9. Atoms are neutral. When an atom loses electron, it becomes positively charged and when an atom gains electron, it becomes negatively charged. Hence, a body is charged negatively when it has acquired some electrons from outside. 10. River water is polluted by industrial wastes which contain fluoride in large quantity. 11. In soft drinks bicarbonate salts acts as acidity regulators. Bicarbonate of soda is effective at regulating the pH levels of other substances; it ensures that the substance is neither too alkaline nor too acidic. 12. Mercury (Hg), a metal is a liquid at room temperature and standard pressure. Bromine (Br2) a non metal is a liquid at room temperature and standard pressure.

MockTime.com 13. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. The nucleus of tritium contains one proton and two neutrons. 14. 15. 16. 17. The rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets due to which it become difficult to see through fog. 18. A laser is a device that emits coherent light through a process called stimulated emission. 19. As, scattering 4 1 µ l Since, wavelength of blue colour is least among three primary colours red, green and blue, so violet colour scattered most. The scattered light in the sky contains blue colour in plenty and therefore sky appears blue. 20. The focal length of a convex lens is shorter for blue light than for red. 21. Average speed = total distance total time = 300 300 300 300 50 60 + + distance Time speed æ ö ç ÷ = è ø Q = 300 300 600 6 5 11 + = + = 54.55 km/h 22. One end of hairpin shaped detergents attracted to water and other to molecules of oil or grease that reduces drastically the surface tension between water and oil. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.He may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office (Article 61). According to article 52,executive power of the Union is vested in the President. HINTS & SOLUTIONS 31. Department of Official language(Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under Ministry of Home affairs. 32. The Rajinder Sachar Committee was commissioned to prepare a report on the latest social, economic and educational condition of the Muslim community of India. It was appointed by the Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singhin 2005. 33. He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration.

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34. The minimum mandate of a democratic government is to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and threats to survival by decisive public action. 35. The Commonwealth of Nations is an intergovernmental organisation of 53 member states that were mostly territories of the former British Empire. The membership only shows that the British ruled over India. 36. The Central Administrative Tribunal has been established for adjudication of disputes with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other local authorities within the territory of India. 37. Article 31B of the Constitution of India ensured that any law in the 9th Schedule could not be challenged in courts and Government can rationalize its programme of social engineering by reforming land and agrarian laws. In other words laws under Ninth Schedule are beyond the purview of judicial review even though they violate fundamental rights enshrined under part III of the Constitution. On the one hand considerable power was given to legislature under Article 31B and on the other hand the power of judiciary was curtailed, this is the starting point of tussle between legislature and judiciary. 38. Delhi and Puducherry have their own elected legislative assembliesand the executive councils of ministers. 39. National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities was constituted by Government on 29 October 2004 to look into various issues related to Linguistic and Religious minorities in India. It is also called Ranganath Misra Commission because it was chaired by former Chief Justice of India Justice Ranganath Misra. 40. The constitution of India does not specifically mention the freedom of press. Freedom of press is implied from the Article 19 (a) (a) of the Constitution. 41. Article 2- (Admission or establishment of new States) Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. Article 3- Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Amendment in the First and Fourth schedule can be done through constitution amendment bill.

MockTime.com 42. Kesavananda Bharati. v. State of Kerala is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution Upholding the validity of clause (4) of article 13 and a corresponding provision in article 368(3) inserted by the 24th Amendment. The Court settled in favour of the view that Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental Rights also. 43. 44. 45. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is not a component of biogas. 46. Benzene (C6H6) is cause of bone marrow failure. 47. The term lubb and dubb is concernes with heart. Lubb is the first sound in the heart produced by the closure of atrioventricular values (tricuspid and bicuspid) at the beginning of ventricular systole. Dup is the second sound produced by the closure of semilunar value towards the last point of ventricular systole. 48. The root nodules of gram plant contain symbiotic bacteria which is responsible for fixing nitrogen. So, gram is preferred for mixed farming. 49. Anthrax is an infectious disease occuring by bacteria called Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax spores can be evolved in vitro and used as a biological weapon. Anthrax can‘t directly spread from one individual to another but can cause infection through spores. 50. Insect bite creates formic acid and lactic acid that causes itching. 51. Azotobactor and Rhizobium are known as nitrogen flxing bacteria that are utilized as biofertilizers. The biofertilizers can be applied with organic fertilizers. 52. Fluoride is essential in small quantity for the protection of the teeth but in high quantity it causes fluorosis deforming the teeth. 53. All enzymes are proteins which catalyse various reactions occuring in cells. Therefore all enzymes are proteins, but not all proteins are enzymes. 54. Birds are warm blooded animals maintaining a constant body temperature through the process of homeostasis. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are cold blooded animals. 55. A person with AB blood group can receive blood from any group but cannot donate blood to any group other than A

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B. O individual can receive blood only from a group of O individual but can donate blood to all groups. 56. The blood group of father of the child could be A or B or O. 57. 58. A sinking fund is a fund created by the government and gradually accumulated every year by setting aside a part of current public revenue in such a way that it would be sufficient to pay off the funded debt at the time of maturity. Under this method, the aggregate burden of public debt is least felt, as the burden of taxing the people to repay the debt is spread evenly over the period of the accumulation of the fund. The preferable alternative for the government is to raise a new loan and credit the proceeds of sinking fund. It is a separate fund established by a government. 59. The government influences private sector expenditure by taxation, subsidies and macro-economic policies. 60. 61. The WBG came into formal existence on 27 December 1945 following international ratification of the Bretton Woods agreements. The Group's headquarters are in Washington, D.C.It was created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II.Its mission is defined by two goals - to end extreme poverty by 2030 and to boost prosperity among the poorest 40 percent in low- and middle-income countries. The World Bank comprises of five institutions.They are: (1) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development(IBRD), (2) the International Development Association (IDA), (3) the International Finance Corporation (IFC), (4) the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency(MIGA) (5) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes(ICSID). 62. The demand for a commodity at a given price is the quantity that will be purchased at a unit of time and at a unit price. Demand has the following features; Demand refers to the quantity at a given price, Demand must be defined per unit time. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69.

MockTime.com 70. 1st Session Bombay Dec. 28-30, 1885 Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee 2nd Session Calcutta Dec. 27-30, 1886 Dadabhai Naoroji 3rd Session Madras Dec. 27-30, 1887 Badruddin Tyabji 4th Session AllahabadDec, 26-29, 1888 George Yule 71. Tansen, who was one of the nine jewels or navaratnas in the court of Emperor Akbar, was born in a Hindu family at Behat near Gwalior in the Madhya Pradesh state. Father of Tansen was Makarand Pande, who named him Ramtanu Pandey. 72. Lord Wellesley defeated Tipu Sultan in India and Napolean Bonaparte in Europe. 73. Amaravati School of Art: In Amaravati, situated in the eastern Deccan, Andhra Pradesh, a different type of art form evolved and flourished for nearly six centuries commencing from 200-100 BC. Patronized first by the Satavahanas and later by the Ikshvakus and also by other groups • The lotus and the purnakumbha motifs are typical of Amaravati Art expressing auspiciousness and abundance. • White Marble was used in this art and the themes were Buddha's life and Jatakas tales. • The curly hair of Buddha is a feature that is influenced by the Greeks • The Palaces of Kings, Princes, etc. have got prominence 74. The Indian Rebellion of 1857 began as a mutiny of sepoys of the East India Company's army on 10th May 1857, in the cantonment of the town of Meerut. 75. Kabir was born in the year 1440 AD and died in 1518 AD in holy city of Varanasi,He did not believe in idol worship. He was also against the performance of rituals and superstitions or pilgrimage to the so-called holy places. 76. All statements are true. 77. The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi's first Satyagraha. The peasants (bhumihars) of the Champaran and other areas of North Bihar were growing the Indigo under the tinakathia system. Under the tinakathia system the peasants were bound to plant 3 out of 20 parts of his land with indigo for his landlord. One local peasant leader Rajkumar Shukla had invited Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran. The very important outcome of the movement was the enactment of Champaran Agrarian Act assented by Governor General of India on 1st May, 1918.

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78. The Nizam-ul-Mulk of Hyderabad was a monarch of the Hyderabad State, did not support the revolt of 1857. 79. Jajmani system is a socio-economic institution of the pre-industrial selfsubsistent village economy. The term 'jajmani' is derived from a Vedic term 'Yajman' means a patron who employs the services of a Brahmin for the performance of sacrifices or other religious ceremonies. The jajmani system is essentially based on caste system. Advantages of jajmani system The occupation being hereditary, it provides security of occupation to the kamin. It provides economic security as the 'jajman takes care of all the needs of kamin. It strengthens the relationship between jajman and kamin(Praja) , which is more personal than economic. 80. In order to keep powerful people happy and to collect better revenue, Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement. As per permanent system, rajas and taluqdars were recognized as zamindars. The zamindars were supposed to collect the land revenue from the peasants. 81. Rajtarangini was written by Kalhan(Kashnmiri Brahman) in Sanskriin 12th century CE.It records the heritage of Kashmir, but 120 verses of R?jatarangi?? describe the misrule prevailing in Kashmir during the reign of King Kalash, son of King Ananta Deva of Kashmir. 82. University of Nalanda was set up by Gupta king Kumargupta I in 415 A.D. 83. Brihadeshwara Temple (Raja Rajeswara Temple) was builtby emperor Raja Raja Chola I in 1010 AD. Meenakshi Temple located on the southern bank of the Vaigai River (Madurai, Tamil Nadu) . It is dedicated to Parvati known as Meenakshi.Srirangam temple is one of the most illustrious Vaishnava temples in South India located on an island on the bank of Cauvery river.The Durga temple is located in Aihole, Karnataka. It was built by Chalukyas between the 7th and the 8th century. 84. Even though monotheism characterizes some of the hymns of Rig Veda, naturalistic polytheism and monism can be discerned in the religion of the hymns of Rig Veda. Like the rigvedic Aryans the ancient Iranians worshipped gods like Mitr,Vayu and Verutraghna. They also wore the scared thread and worshipped fire etc. Initially sacrifices were simple, house hold duties

MockTime.com performed by the oldest male member of the house yajmana who acted as priest and the oldest female member. yajmana patni(wife of the householder) who assisted in the act. The agnihotra was a simple domestic sacrifice to be performed daily by the head of a Dvija household in the morning and the evening. Other involved the participation of many different ritual specialists along with their assistants. 85. Sualkuchi is located in Assam. This is the textile center of Assam. Muga silk and Pat silk along with Eri silk and Endi cloth from this region is famous for its quality. 86. 1. Rihand - Pipri 2. GandakBalmikinagar 3. Chambal- Kota 4. Mahanadi- Hirakund 87. 88. 89. At high altitudes, pressure cooker is preferable for cooking because the boiling point of water reduces due to lower atmosphere pressure. 90. Tawang is situated in the northwestern part of Arunachal Pradesh at an elevation of approximately 10,000 ft. The area is claimed by both the People's Republic of China and the Republic of India as a part of South Tibet. 91. Thailand does not have a border with China. The 14 countries touch the border of china which are India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan, Mongolia, Russia, North Korea,Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Bhutan and Nepal. 92. Narmada valley builds the traditional boundary between North India and South India and has structural origin. 93. The term, 'intensive subsistence agriculture' is used to describe a type of agriculture characterised by high output per unit of land and relatively low output per worker. Sometimes it is also known as 'monsoon type of agriculture'. It is found in China, Japan, Korea, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, the greater part of continental SouthEast Asia. This is why the largest population of peasants is found in this area. 94. Thermal Equatoris an imaginary line round the earth running through the point on each meridian with the highest average temperature. It lies mainly to the north because of the larger landmasses and thus greater summer heating. 95. The ozone layer is a belt of naturally occurring ozone gas that sits 9.3 to 18.6 miles (15 to 30 kilometres) above Earth and

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serves as a shield from the harmful ultraviolet B radiation emitted by the sun. It is mostly found in Stratosphere and it is significant for the life on the earth. 96. A greenhouse gas (GHG) is any gas in the atmosphere that takes in (absorbs) and gives off (emits) radiation in the heat (infrared) wavelength range. Greenhouse gases cause the greenhouse effect which results in increased temperatures on Earth. These gases let incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing infrared radiation. 97. River - Tributary Ganga- Gomti and Kosi Indus- Chenab and Sutlej Yamuna- Chambal and Ken Godavari- Wainganga and Indravati 98. The Gaddis are a tribe living mainly in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. They belong to the class of the shepherds and their job is looking after goats and sheep. 99. The Ukai Dam constructed across the Tapti River is the largest reservoir in Gujarat. Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam across the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is the world's largest masonry dam built on the Krishna River at Nagarjuna Sagar. The Pandoh Dam is an embankment dam on the Beas River in Mandi in Himachal Pradesh. 100. Matrilineal descent is a kinship system where a descent group traces its ancestral lineage via the maternal (uterine) side of the group. The property passes from mother to daughter. Women are dominant in the family. The examples of matrilineal societies are Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya. 101. 102. Typhoon Haiyan came in toPhilippines in earlyNovember 2013. It is the deadliest Philippine typhoon recorded in modern history. It has taken the lives of 6300 people in that country alone. 103. Kingfisher Airlines was established in 2003. It is owned by the Bengaluru based United Breweries Group. It is founded by Vijay Mallya. 104. Gagan Narang- Rifle Shooting Akhil Kumar- Boxing Mangal Singh ChampiaArchery Virdhawal Khade- Swimming 105. Akash is a medium-range mobile surface-to-air missile. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Ordnance Factories Board and Bharat Electronics (BEL) in India. 106. Jamsedhji Nusserwanji Tata was an Indian pioneer industrialist, who founded the Tata Group. He was born to a Parsi

MockTime.com Zoroastrian family in Navsari then part of the princely state of Baroda. 107. Concordat of 2009 was signed between the Holy sea and Schlesming-Holstein state. 108. Jawahar Rozgar Yojna was launched on April 1, 1989 by merging National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) and Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP). The main target audience of this plan was the people below poverty line. This plan aims to provide 90 to 100 days of employment to people residing in the rural and most backward areas is the biggest employment generating programmes in the country. Its main thrust is creating additional wage employment opportunities in rural areas. 109. 110. Aggregate food availability globally was relatively good in 2008 and 2009 but higher food prices and reduced employment and incomes meant that the poor had less access to the food. According to the global hunger index the countries of south Asia are found to have made better progress over the past two decades. India is all set to achieve the millennium development goal. 111. Agent Orange is one of the herbicides and defoliants used by the U.S. military as part of its herbicidal warfare programme, Operation Ranch Hand during the Vietnam War from 1961 to 1971. During the Vietnam War, between 1962 and 1971, the United States military sprayed nearly 20,000,000 U.S. gallons (75,700,000 L) of chemical herbicides and defoliants in Vietnam. The campaign destroyed 5 million acres (20,000 km2) of upland and mangrove forests and millions of acres of crops. 112. The enforcement of conformity by society upon its members, either by law or by social pressure is called social control. Formal type of social control is exercised by known and deliberate agencies of social control, such as law, punishment, army, constitution, courts, Police, family etc. Man is forced to accept these forms of social control. Generally these forms are exercised by secondary groups. 113. The Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory (GRAIL) was an American lunar science mission in NASA's Discovery Program which used high-quality gravitational fieldmapping of the Moon to determine its interior structure.

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114. The Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people. Yash Pal was the last recipient of this prize. 115. 116. 117. The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are standards established by the United States Environmental Protection Agency under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country. EPA has set National Ambient Air Quality Standards for six principal pollutants, which are called "criteria" pollutants. These are Carbon Monoxide, Lead, Nitrogen Dioxide, Particle Pollution and Sulphur Dioxide. 118. A major decision taken at the fifth BRICS summit held recently was to establish a new development bank. 119. Internal security Academy is located at Mount Abu. 120. The Star Alliance is the world's largest global airline alliance, headquartered in Frankfurt, Germany. It was founded on May 14, 1997.Air India has joined on 11 July 2014.

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MockTime.com (d) 2,3,4

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Regions of unsustainable agriculture or having unstable government or both, that typically suffer high rates of habitat destruction, are : 1.Japan 2.Central America 3.Sub-Saharan Africa 4.Amazonian tropical forests in South America (a) 1,2 (b) 1,2,3 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2, 3, 4 Q2. Apart from pesticide misuse, other factors that pose a constant threat to bee populations and thus being responsible for pollinator decline are rapid transfer of parasites and diseases of pollinator species loss of habitat and forage hive destructions air pollution (a) 1,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 2,3,4 Q3. Enhanced growth of aquatic vegetation in respect of phytoplankton and algal blooms through eutrophication 1. disrupts natural functioning of ecosystem leading into lack of 02 needed for survival of fish and other aquatic animals 2.causes decreased biodiversity 3.causes health problems due to interference with drinking water treatment 4.disturbs levels of nitrates and phosphates (a) 1 only (b) 2,3 (c) 1,2,3 (d) 1,2,4 Q4. Biodiversity hotspots in India are 1.The Eastern Ghat 2.Eastern Himalayas 3.Andaman and Nicobar islands 4.The Western Ghat (a) 1,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 2, 4

Q5. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel prizes? (a) Physics and Chemistry (b) Chemistry and Medicine (c) Physics and Medicine (d) Chemistry and Peace Q6. Which one of the following is an element? (a) Topaz (b) Diamond (c) Ruby (d) Sapphire Q7. Nail polish remover contains (a) acetone (b) benzene (c) formaldehyde (d) acetic acid Q8. The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is due to a type of molecules called surfactants, which are present in soaps and detergents. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by (a) making the cloth slippery (b) producing some gases between the dirt and the cloth (c) dissolving the dirt (d) forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the core of the aggregates Q9. Which one among the following metals is used for making boats because it does not corrode by sea water? (a) Tungsten (b) Nickel (c) Antimony (d) Titanium Q10. What is the main constituent of a pearl? (a) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate (b) Calcium sulphate only (c) Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate (d) Calcium carbonate only Q11. Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the stomach. A commonly used antacid is (a) sodium hydrogen phthalate (b) magnesium hydroxide (c) calcium hydroxide (d) manganese acetate

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Q12. A compound that is a white solid which absorbs water vapour from the air is (a) sodium nitrate (b) calcium chloride (c) sodium carbonate (d) calcium sulphate Q13. When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the solution turns milky, but, on prolonged passage, the solution turns clear. This is because (a) the calcium carbonate formed initially is converted to soluble calcium bicarbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide (b) the reaction is reversible and lime water is regenerated (c) the calcium bicarbonate formed initially is converted to soluble calcium carbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide (d) the initially formed insoluble compound is soluble in carbonic acid. Q14. Buffer solutions 1.resist changes in PH. 2.change pH only with addition of a strong base£ 3.are important in living systems. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Q15. Example of a Lewis acid is (a) NAOH (b) ALCL3 (c) K2C03 (d) KOH Q16. The Heisenberg's uncertainty principle can be applied to (a) A flying concord (b) An electron (c) A moving cricket ball (d) A proton Q17. The density of water varies with temperature which helps the aquatic animals to live in cold water. At what temperature is the density of water maximum? (a) 1°C (b) 2°C (c) 3°C (d) 4°C

MockTime.com Q18. A perfect black body has the unique characteristic feature as (a) a good absorber only (b) a good radiator only (c) a good absorber and a good radiator (d) neither a radiator nor an absorber Q19. The force acting on a particle executing simple harmonic motion is (a) directly proportional to the displacement and is directed away from the mean position (b) inversely proportional to the displacement and is directed towards the mean position (c) directly proportional to the displacement and is directed towards the mean position (d) inversely proportional to the displacement and is directed away from the mean position

Q20. When you pull out the plug connected to an electrical appliance, you often observe a spark. To which property of the appliance is this related? (a) Resistance (b) Inductance (c) Capacitance (d) Wattage Q21. A device, which is used in our TV set, computer,radio set for storing the electric charge, is (a) resistor (b) inductor (c) capacitor (d) conductor Q22. You are asked to jog in a circular track of radius 35 m. Right one complete round on the circular track, your displacement and distance covered by you respectively (a) zero and 220 m (b) 220 m and zero (c) zero and 110 m (d) 110 m and 220 m Q23. Statement I: When a gun is fired it recoils, i.e., it pushes back, with much less velocity than the velocity of the bullet. Statement II: Velocity of the recoiling gun is less because the gun is much heavier than the bullet. (a)

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(b) (c) (d) Q24. As a metal brick, thrown into a deep lake, sinks deeper and deeper, the buoyant force acting on it (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Vanishes at a particular depth (d) Remains constant Q25. The current drawn in amperes by 750 W electric iron when operated at 220 V is (a) 0.34 (b) 0.29 (c) 2.90 (d) 3.41 Q26. Which of the following is/are units of length? 1.Nanometre 2.Light year 3.AstronomicalUnit 4.Parsec (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1,2, and 3 (d) All the four Q27. Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits (a) Alpha rays (b) Beta rays (c) Gamma rays (d) X-rays Q28. Cryogenic engines find applications in (a) Sub-marine propulsion (b) Frost-free refrigerators (c) Rocket technology (d) Superconductivity Q29. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976? (a) V.V Giri (b) Giani Zail Singh (c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad (d) Shankar Dayal Sharma Q30. Consider the following statements 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.

MockTime.com 2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes of the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q31. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the State? (a) Asom (b) Manipur (c) Nagaland (d) Andhra Pradesh Q32. The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which of the following are the main features of this provision? 1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all states. 2. Panchayat election in every 5 years. 3. Not less than 33% of seats are reserved for women. 4. Constitution of district planning committies to prepare development plans. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Q33. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid. 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid. 3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

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Q34. DIRECTIONS : The following questions are based on the following passage. A government in a democratic country has to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women), then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only those particular new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of democracy. W hat does the author mean by nyaya? (a) Judiciary and judicial processes (b) The rule of law and the Constitution (c) A concept of justice that combines theories of justice with the practice of democracy (d) Universal theories of justice that are applicable as standards in all societies Q35. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of (a) its first meeting (b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat (c) declaration of the election results (d) taking oath of office by the elected members Q36. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to (a) suspension of debate at the terminafan of a day's sitting of the Parliament

MockTime.com (b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be hatted (c) the termination of a Parliamentary session (d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the opposition look at important documents Q37. Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India read with (a) Article 39 (b) , would enable the court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalisation laws (c) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down astatute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent (d) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article Q38. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India? 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these Q39. Which one among the following committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha? (a) Public Accounts Committee (b) Estimates Committee (c) Public Undertakings Committee (d) Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance Q40. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India case, which one among the following features of the Constitution of India was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure? (a) Liberalism (b) Secularism (c) Dignity of the human person (d) Freedom of religion Q41. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct?

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1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People. 2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951. 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review. 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. 4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only Q43. There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People. This comes under Article (a) 79 (b) 78 (c) 105 (d) 110 Q44. The Constitution (73rd) Amendment Act, 1992 which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj institutions in the country provides for which of the following? 1.Constitution of District Planning Committees 2.State Election Commissions to conduct all panchay-at elections 3.Establishment of State Finance Commission Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

MockTime.com Q45. A mother of blood group O has a group O child. What could be the blood group of father of the child? (a) Only O (b) A or B or O (c) A or B (d) Only AB Q46. Which one of the following glands produces the growth hormone (somatotrophin)? (a) Adrenal (b) Pancreas (c) Pituitary (d) Thyroid Q47. In hi man body, what is the number of cervical vertebrae? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 12 Q48. The plant dye Henna imparts orangered colour to skin and hairs due to its reaction with which of the following? (a) Proteins and amino acids (b) Lipids (c) Carbohydrates (d) Nucleic acids Q49. Which one of the following animals breathe through the skin? (a) Fish (b) Pigeon (c) Frog (d) Cockroach Q50. Which one among the following is a major source of sugar? (a) Watermelon (b) Beetroot (c) Sugarcane (d) Date Q51. Why are pregnant women recommended substantial intake of green leafy vegetables in their diet, especially in the1st trimester? (a) They are a rich source of chlorophyll (b) They are a rich source of lecithin (c) They are a rich source of folic acid which is required for DNA synthesis (d) They are a rich source of essential fatty acids required for cell anabolism

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Q52. Which one among the following is not correct about Down's syndrome? (a) It is a genetic disorder (b) Effected individual has early ageing (c) Effected person has mental retardation (d) Effected person has furrowed tongue with open mouth Q53. The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence of origin of (a) birds from reptiles (b) mammals from reptiles (c) reptiles from amphibians (d) mammals from birds Q54. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA? (a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi apparatus (c) Lysosome (d) Mitochondria Q55. Which one among the following is the correct pathway for the elimination of urine? (a) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra (b) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters (c) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys (d) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra Q56. What does sphygmomanometer measure? (a) Blood pressure (b) Velocity of fluids (c) Temperature (d) Curvature of spherical surfaces Q57. The acronym SRO, being used in the capital market for various market participants, stands for which one of the following? (a) Self regulatory Organisations (b) Small Revenue Operators (c) Securities Roll-back Operators (d) Securities Regulatory Organisations Q58. Match the following List I List II (Five Year Plan) (Emphasis) A. First - 1. Food security and women empowerment B. Second - 2. Heavy industries C. Fifth - 3. Agriculture and community development D. Ninth - 4. Removal of poverty Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3

MockTime.com (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Q59. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run? (a) Insurance on buildings (b) Overtime payment to worker (c) Cost of energy (d) Cost of raw materials Q60. The Government of India and Reserve Bank of India have decided to introduce 1 billion pieces of ` 10 notes in pol ymer/ plastic on a field trial basis. Which of the following is/ are the objectives behind this move? 1. Increase of the lifetime of the notes. 2. Combating counterfeiting. 3. Reducing the cost of minting of currency. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of the above Q61. Which of the following statements about International Monetary Fund (IMF) are correct? 1. The IMF is a United Nations specialized agency. 2. The IMF was founded at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 to secure international monetary cooperation. 3. The objective of the IMF is to stabilize currency exchange rates, and to expand international liquidity (access to hard currencies). Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (4) 1 and 3 only (d) Q62. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes (a) downward to the right (b) upward to the right (c) horizontally (d) upward to the left Q63. The latest information about agricultural markets is collected and published by the: (a) Food Corporation of India

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(b) Directorate of Economics and Statistics (c) National Council of Applied Economic Research (d) Indian Statistical Institute Q64. Fiscal Policy is connected with (a) exports and imports (b) public revenue and expenditure (c) issue of currency (d) population control Q65. Which of the following is not a function of the National Development Council? (a) Review the working of the Five Year Plans (b) Consider important socioeconomic policies64 Economic and Social Development (c) Decide on allocation among the states (d) Improve the efficiency of administrative services required for plan implementation. Q66. Project GAGAN has been designed to (a) provide a dependable aerial defense system (b) ensure a more reliable meteorological forecast system (c) meet the precision approach requirements of the Civil Aviation sector (d) track the migratory birds and study their pattern of migration. Q67. In the context of the UN Conference on Sustainable Development, 2012 (Rio+20), the principle of Coffimon66 Economic and Social Development But Differentiated Responsibility (CBDR) means 1.It is the concern of all humanity to address the issues of environment. 2.Responsibility will differ according to differing capacities of the states to address environmental issues in development. 3.The concept of historical responsibility demands that the bulk of responsibility is placed on those who have most contributed to environmental degradation. 4. developing countries have a responsibility to develop in a sustainable manner. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1,2, and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only Q68. The purpose of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act is, among other things:

MockTime.com (a) to regulate government borrowing (b) to allow urban local bodies to incur debts (c) to make the state governments responsible for the implementation of central schemes (d) none of the above Q69. Who among the following was the Governor-General of India immediately preceeding Chakravarthi Raja gopalachari? (a) The Marquess of Linlithgow (b) Lord Mountbatten (c) Lord Wavell (d) Lord Chelmsford

Q70. The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who of the following? (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Minto Q71. Who among the following has issued the coin rupee for the first time? (a) Muhammad bin Tughluq (b) Ala-ud-din Khilji (c) Sher Shah (d) Akbar Q72. Consider the following statements 1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875. 2. The Arya Samaj repudiated the authority of the caste system. 3. Dayanand Saraswati was born in the Brahman family. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q73. Which two of the following plays did Kalidasa wrote before writing Abhigyanashakuntalam? 1. Vikramorvashiyam 2. Malavikagnimitram 3. Swapnavasavadattam 4. Kadambari Select the correct answer using the codes given below

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(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Q74. Consider the following statements aboul Vijayanagara empire 1. Vijayanagara was noted for its markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones. 2. Krishnadeva Raya‘s rule was characterised by the strain within the imperial structure, 3. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Royas. Which ofthe statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Q75. Which one among the following statements about Ashokan edicts is correct? (a) The Pillar edicts were located in all parts of the empire (b) The edicts give details of his personal concerns but are silent on events of the empire (c) The subject of inscribed matter on Rock edicts differs completely with that of the Pillar edicts (d) The Greek or Aramaic edicts are versions or translations of the texts used in other edicts Q76. Which one among the following was not true about the Kerala king, Marthanda Verma? (a) He ruled over Travancore (b) He subdued the feudatories (c) He gave heavy bribes to the European officers to maintain peace (d) He organised a strong modern army Q77. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well known ancient monument. Which of the following statements about the monument are correct? 1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin. 2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl of Marquis of Lansdowne. 3. It is famous for holding three meetings before Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission.

MockTime.com Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Q78. Which one among the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society? (a) Belief in Karma and Rebirth (b) Belief in Universal Brotherhood and Humanity (c) Belief in Vedantic Philosophy (d) Belief in the Eradication of Untouchability Q79. Which one among the following depicts the correct meaning of the term Tins-i-Kamil concerning crops in Mughal India? (a) Paddy crop (b) Cash crop (c) Coarse crop (d) Crop grown, Q80. Which of the following was/were not related to Buddha‘s life? 1. Kanthaka 2. Alara Kalama 3. Channa 4. Goshala Maskariputra Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4 Q81. Statement I: Kali age reflects the presence of deep social crisis characterised by varnasankara i. e., intermixture of varnas or social orders. Statement II: The Vaisyas and Sudras (peasants, artisans and labourers) either refused to perform producing functions or pay taxes or supply necessary labour for economic production resulting in weakening of Brahminical social order and social tension. (a) Both the statemtns are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

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(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q82. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the leadership of (a) Bindusara (b) Ashoka (c) Kunal (d) Kanishka Q83. Match the following List I (Text) - List II (Author) A. Kitab-al-Hind- 1. Ibn Battuta B. Rehla - 2. Al–Biruni C. Humayun Nama- 3. Lohori D. Badshah Nama - 4. Gulbadan Begum Codes: A B C D ABC D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 Q84. Which of the following statement(s) about caste movements in early 20th century Kerala is/are false? 1. Kerala's first modern novel Indulekh attacked the social dominance of Nambudiri Brahmans in Kerala. 2. C.V. Raman Pillai's novel Marthanda Varma was written against the exploitation of peasants by Nair landlords. 3. Sree Narayana Guru was one of the founders of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam that was engaged in the upliftment of the Ezhavas in Kerala. 4. Dr. Palpu, the first Ezhava graduals was one of the founders of the S Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yog that was engaged in the upliftment the Ezhavas in Kerala. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 4 Q85. In which one of the following countries is the volcano 'Guallatiri" located? (a) Peru (b) Chile (c) Tanzania (d) Ecuador Q86. Which of the following sequences of the oil refineries of India as they occur from South to North is correct?

MockTime.com (a) Kochi-Mangalore-Mumbai-Koyali (b) Koyali-Mumbai-Mangalore-Kochi (c) Kochi-Mumbai-Mangalore-Koyali (d) Mangalore-Kochi-Mumbai-Koyali Q87. Assertion Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the Sun. Reason (R) Venus is the second planet from the Sun in our solar system. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q88. Assertion The Himalayan meadows are suitable for transhumance. Reason (R) In these areas transport facility to move from one place to another is good. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q89. Which one of the following does not have a heavy water plant? (a) Narora (b) Sriharikota (c) Kakrapar (d) Kota Q90. Which among the following Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance? (a) 2433 Chennai Central (b) 2431 Trivandrum Central (c) 2435 Dibrugarh Town (d) 2429 Bangluru City Junction Q91. The Earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical trajectory due to gravity. If another Sun like star is brought near the Earth, what will be the shape of the trajectory? (a) Ellipse (b) Parabola (c) Circle (d) It will be undeterministic Q92. Which one of the following places with petrochemical industries is most westward located in India? (a) Kota (b) Nagpur (c) Barauni (d) Ujjain Q93. Match the following A. Manas

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1. Meghalaya B. Pachmarhi 2. Asom C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh D. Achanakmar Amarkantak 4. Chhattisgarh Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4

MockTime.com (b) doldrums (c) polar winds (d) trade winds

Q94. 'El Nino' associated with the formation of the South West Monsoon of India is (a) an abnormally warm ocean current (b) a periodic warm air-mass (c) a periodic warm wind (d) a periodic low pressure centre

Q100. Which of the following are true of matrilineal societies? 1. Newly married couple stays with the woman's parents. 2. As per the rules of inheritance, the property passes from mother to daughter. 3. Women play a dominant role in the family. 4. Examples of matrilineal societies are those of the Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

Q95. Duncan Passage is located between (a) South and little Andaman (b) Little and Great Nicobar (c) North and Middle Andaman (d) Middle and South Andaman

Q101. Cordillera in North America is a (a) river basin (b) high plateau (c) inland lake (d) mountain system

Q96. Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to (a) low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction (b) high escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction (c) low gravitational attraction only (d) high escape velocity of air molecule only

Q102. 'Population dividend' refers to (a) total number of population (b) youthful age structure of a population (c) relatively high proportion of experienced aged people (d) migration from richer region to poorer region

Q97. Farmers are requested to mix lime with soil while farming their fields. This is because (a) lime is very helpful in maintaining the water content in the soil (b) lime decreases the acidity of soil (c) lime decreases the basicity of soil (d) high concentration of lime is necessary for the plant growth Q98. The waves that help scientists to understand the internal structure of the Earth are (a) primary waves (b) secondary waves (c) surface waves (d) longitudinal waves Q99. The planetary winds that blow from the sub-tropical high pressure belts to the equator are known as (a) westerlies

Q103. Which one of the following days is observed as the World Environment Day? (a) 28th February (b) 4th March (c) 5th June (d) 16th September Q104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Nobel Laureate of 2008 Discipline (a) Martti Ahtisaari: Peace (b) Yoichiro Nambu: Physics (c) Jean-Marie Gustave Le Clezio: Literature (d) Osamu Shimomura: Physiology Q105. The 'Red Data Book' containing information on all wild plants and animals in danger of extinction has been published by which one of the following? (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

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(c) World Conservation Union (WCU) (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Q106. Who among the following holds the world record for the fastest century in a One Day International cricket match? (a) Sanath Jayasuriya (b) Virendra Sehwag (c) Shahid Afridi (d) None of these Q107. Consider the following statements 1. The gross revenue from the telecom sector in India accounts for 3% of the GDP (2009). 2. Centre for Development of Telematics is better known as C-DOT. 3. The switch from digital technology to the analog system revolutionised telephony in India. Which of the statements gives above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Q108. High Altitude Warfare School of the Indian Army is located at (a) Gulmarg (b) Siachin (c) Leh (d) Manali Q109. Which one of the following is not a football tournament? (a) l-League (b) Irani Trophy (c) Bardoloi Trophy (d) Durand Cup Q110. Which amongst the following countries is the largest troop contributor to the United Nations peace keeping mission? (a) India (b) China (c) Pakistan (d) Bangladesh Q111. Along with goods manufactured using child labour, some of the developed countries have started to boycott goods manufactured in developing countries using 'sweat labour'. 'Sweat labour' implies goods produced by (a) female labourers at a very low wage (b) labourers working in inhuman/unhealthy working conditions

MockTime.com (c) labourers working for more than eight hours a day without any break (d) labourers where there is a wage discrimination between male and female labourers Q112. What is the target of the Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations with respect to Universal Primary Education? (a) All children both boys and girls would complete a full course primary schooling by 2015 (b) All children both boys and girls are to be literate by 2050 (c) All boys should go to school to complete a full course of primary schooling by 2025 (d) All girls should be enrolled in primary school by 2015 Q113. The Indian Research Station 'Himadri' is located at (a) Siachen (b) Darjeeling (c) Arctic Region (d) Antarctica Q114. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Yudh Abhyas? (a) It is an Indian military 'war game' wi th regard to Pakistan (b) It is an Indian military exercise with Oman (c) It is an Indian military exercise with Bhutan (d) It is an Indian military exercise with US Q115. The Indian Army undertook Operation Meghdoot to establish Indian control over (a) Sir Creek (b) Alksai Chin (c) Siachen Glacier (d) Drass Sector Q116. Who among the following is the author of the book, ‗Sachin : Born to Bat-The Journey of Cricket‘s Ultimate Centurian‘? (a) Khalid AH Ansari (b) Boria Majumdar (c) Kiran Nagarkar (d) Ed Hawkins Q117. Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawm whoexpired on 1 st October, 2012, has authored a large number of books. The title of his famous autobiography is (a) Bandits

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(b) Uncommon People: Resistance, Rebellion and Jazz (c) The New Century: In Conversation with Antonio Polito (d) Interesting Times: A 20th Century Life Q118. The Saudi Arabia government has recently decided to strictly implement a law called Nitaqat law. As a result (a) 10% jobs in Saudi should be reserved for Saudi nationals (b) 50% jobs in Saudi should be reserved for Saudi nationals (c) A foreigner will be allowed to work in Saudi Arabia for a maximum period of 10 years (d) 'Foreigner's' job contracts in Saudi Arabia will be on year to year basis Q119. Heena Sidhu, who recently won a World Cup Gold Medal for India, is associated with (a) shooting (b) archery (c) weightlifting (d) boxing Q120. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? 1. In June 2014, the World Heritage Committee has inscribed the Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (GHNPCA) on the World Heritage List on the basis of UNESCO Guidelines. 2. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) is located in Sikkim. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. d 26. d 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. a 62. A 63. d 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. d 82. d 83. d 84. c 85. b 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. b 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. b 98. b 99. d 100. b 101. d 102. b 103. c 104. d 105. a 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. b 110. d 111. b

MockTime.com 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. a 117. d 118. a 119. a 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Marie Curie win her two different Noble prizes in two different category i.e., Physics and Chemistry for the discovery of radium and polonium. 6. Diamond is an element. It is an allotrop of carbon. While ruby, topaz and sapphire are mineral (i.e., compounds). These are the valuable gemstones. 7. Acetone is used as a solvent. It is an ingredient of nail polish remover. 8. The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is due to a type of molecules called surfactants. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the core of aggregates. The spherical aggregate of surfactant molecules in water is called a micelle. 9. Titanium (Ti) metal is used for making boats because it does not corrode by the sea water. 10. Pearl consists of approximately85% calcium carbonate. 11. Generally are weak bases. Antacid which naturalises stomach acidity, a commonly used antacid is magnesium hydroxide. Magnesium hydroxide is common component of antacids and laxatives. 12. A compound calcium sulphate (CaSO4) which is a white solid is highly hygroscopic in nature. It has a very remarkable property of setting into a hard, solid mass on wetting with water. 13. Lime water is actually Ca(OH)2. When it reacts with CO2, insoluble CaCO3 is formed which turns solution milky. When excess CO2 is added, CaCO3 reacts with water and CO2 to form Calcium bicarbonate which is soluble. That is why the solution clears out. 14. 15. 16. 17. Density of water is maximum at 4°C. 18. A perfect black body emits and absorbs all colours of light. A good absorber is a good emitter. 19. The restoring force acting on the particle is always proportional to the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium posi tion and

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is always directed towards the equilibrium position. 20. As the plug is pulled out, the value of resistance in the circuit decreases and hence more current tries to flow through the circuit. Pulling out the plug breaks the circuit and to complete the circuit for the flow of electricity a spark is observed. 21. Capacitor (condenser) is used to store energy in an electric field. Capacitance of a capacitor C, defined as the ratio of charge ± Q on each conductor to the voltage V between them. C = Q V 22. Displacement = Shortest distance between initial and final point = 0 Distance travelled by you = 2pr (Circumference of the circular track) 35 m 22 2 35 7 =´ ´ 22 70 7 = ´ = 220m 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles affairs relating to the Parliament of India and works as a link between the two chambers, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It constitutes consultative committees of members of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their meetings, both during and between sessions. 31. Article 371A deals with theSpecial provision with respect to the State of Nagaland. 32. The salient features of the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 are: - · To provide 3tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States having population of over 20 lakhs. · To hold Panchayat elections regularly every 5 years. · To provide reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women (not less than 33% ) · To appoint State Finance Commission to make recommendations as regards the financial powers of the Panchayats. 33. The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the following conditions are satisfied:- (i) the candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates, that is to say, either his nomination was rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew his candidature; or (ii) he dies before the commencement of the poll; or (iii) he is elected; or (iv) he is not elected but gets

MockTime.com more than 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election. 34. nyaya is a concept of justice that combines theories of justice with the practice of democracy. 35. According to Article 243(E), every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer. 36. "Closure" is one of the means by which a debate may be brought to a close by a majority decision of the House, even though all members wishing to speak have not done so. 37. Traffic in human beings and beggars and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. The terms 'Socialist' was added by the 42nd Amendment and assert that the government must adopt socialistic policies to ensure decent life for all Indian citizens. Thus, the word Socialist in the preamble of the Constitution of India read with Article23. 38. The National Social Assistance Programme(NSAP) represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution. It came into effect from 15th August 1995. 39. The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. The term of office of the Committee is one year. 40. The case of S.R.Bommai vs Union of India is a landmark case in the purview of the Indian Constitutional history relating to the proclamation of emergency under Article 356 of the Constitution. The case mainly came up with the issue of the power of the President to issue proclamation under Article 356 of the Constitution including the power to dissolve State Legislative Assemblies and also issues relating to federalism and secularism as a part of basic structure. 41. Article 79- There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the council of States and the House of the People. Article 54 - The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college

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consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. 42. The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment 1951 to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.However in 2007 Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in it after 24 April 1973 are now open to judicial review. 43. 44. 45. The blood group of father of the child could be A or B or O. 46. Somatotrophin is produced by the anterior pituitary. It is a peptide hormone that induces growth, cell reproduction and regeneration. 47. In vertebrates, cervical vertebrae are immediately inferior to the skull. They are smallest of true vertebrae and their number in human body is7. 48. Henna (Lawsonia intermis) is a flowering plant. It is used to dye skin, hair, fingernails, leather and wood. Colouring feature of henna is due to lawsone, an organic compound that shows affinity for proteins and amino acids in animals. 49. Frog takes respiration in water through the moist skin. Whereas on the Earth respiration occurs through lungs Fish has gills, Cockroach has spiracles and pigeon possesses lungs to respire. 50. Sugarcane is a main raw material for the production of suger, sugar producing countries are Cuba, Brazil, India and Chin a. 51. A pregnant woman requires an additional400mg of folic acid daily during the first trimester of pregnancy. Green vegetables are rich in folic acid because they have folate. 52. Down‘s syndrome is characterised by an extra chromosome. It is also known as trisomy. All the given characters are observed in Down‘s syndrome, except option (b) only early ageing which is the symptom of progeria disease. 53. Archeopteryx is a genus of theropad dinosaur that is closely related to bird. It demonstrates the evidence of origin of birds from reptiles. 54. Mitochondrial DNA is the DNA located in organelles called mitochondria. In eukaryotic cells it converts chemical energy from food into a Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) that cells can use.

MockTime.com 55. The kidneys filter metabolic wastes, excess ions, and chemicals from the blood to form urine. The ureters are a pair of tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. The urethra is the tube through which urine passes from the bladder to the exterior of the body. 56. Sphygmomanometer is an instrument to measure the blood pressure. It is made up of an inflatable cuff to restrict the blood flow and a mercury or manometer to measure pressure. 57. 58. 1. First Five Year Plan (1951-56)Agriculture and community development 2. Second Five Year Plan (1956-61)- Heavy Industry 3. Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-79)Removal of Poverty 4. Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002)- Food Security and woman empowerment 59. In the short run insurance premium are fixed costs because they are independent of the level of production. 60. The government and the RBI have decided to launch one billion pieces of Rs 10 bank notes made of plastic on a field trial basis in 5 cities viz. Kochi, Mysore, Jaipur, Bhubhaneswar and Shimla. Primary goal of introduction of polymer notes is to increase its life. It could also help in combating counterfeiting. RBI will embark on polymer notes on a long term basis only if the costbenefit calculus is decidedly positive in all dimensions. 61. The IMF is a UN's specialized agency. IMF was formed in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conferenceto promote international economic cooperation, international trade, employment, and exchange-rate stability, including by making financial resources available to member countries to meet balance-ofpaymentsneeds. 62. When the curve slopes downwards from left to right; higher prices reduce the quantity demanded. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. The Treaty of Amritsar of 1809 was an agreement between the British East India Company and Ranjit Singh, the Sikh leader who founded the Sikh empire. The treaty

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settled Indo-Sikh relations for a generation. The immediate occasion was the French threat to northwestern India, following Napoleon's Treaty of Tilsit with Russia (1807) and Ranjit Singh's attempt to bring the CisSutlej states under his control. The Briti sh wanted a defensive treaty against the French and control of Punjab to the Sutlej River. Although this was not a defensive treaty, it did fix the frontier of lands controlled by Ranjit Singh broadly along the line of the Sutlej River. 71. The first Rupee (Silver coin) was introduced by Sher Shah and was called "Rupia" which remained in use throughout the Mughal rule. 72. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj which was an organization for teaching the true Vedic religion and also a social reform movement. He fought for equal rights for all and emphasized on social upliftment of women and the so-called lower caste. He denounced superstitions and condemned practices such as animal sacrifices. 73. 74. For effective administration the vast territory of the Rajya was divided as vassal states and provinces ruled directly by the king's direct representatives. While the vassal states were administered by the Nayakas or Samantas, the territories directly under the king were called Rajyas, Mandalas and sometimes Chavadis. 75. The edicts focus on social and moral precepts rather than religious practices or the philosophical dimension of Buddhism. Major themes are Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism, the description of his efforts to spread Buddhism, his moral and religious precepts, and his social and animal welfare programs. 76. Anizham Thirunal Veerabaala Marthanda Varma was king of Travancore from 1729 until his death in 1758. He was the only Indian King to beat the European armed force at the 1741 Battle of Colachel against the Dutch. 77. The Viceregal Lodge, also known as Rashtrapati Niwas, is located on the Observatory Hills of Shimla, Himachal Pradesh,It was built during the regime of Lord Dufferin. Its construction started in 1880 and was completed in 1888.The cabinet Mission 1946 was held in the The Viceregal Lodge.

MockTime.com 78. The Theosophical Society was officially formed in New York City, United States, in November 1875 by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge and others. 79. In Mughal period Cash crops were called Tins-i-Kamil or jins-i-ala. 80. Goshala Maskariputra was the founder of Ajivika Sect.He was the contemporary of Mahavir. 81. Statement ll is correct because vaisyas and shudras refused to perform producing functions or pay taxes which resulted in the weakening of Brahminical social order. 82. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held at Kundalvana, Kashmir in 72 AD under the patronage of Kushan king Kanishka and the president of this council was Vasumitra, with A?vaghosa as his deputy. This council distinctly divided the Buddhism into 2 sectsMahayan & Hinayan. 83. Al-Biruni wrote the book Kitab-Al-Hind in 11th century in Turkish language.Ibn Batuta is known for his extensive travels, accounts of which were published in the Rihla (lit. "Journey") . Over a period of thirty years, Ibn Battuta visited most of the known Islamic world as well as many non-Muslim lands.Gulbadan Begum, the daughter of Mughal emperor Babar, wrote the Humayun Nama, the account of the life of her halfbrother, Humayun. Abdul Hamid Lahori a court historian of Shah Jahanwrote the book Padshahnama also referred as Badshahnama. In this book Shah Jahan's first twenty years of reign were described. 84. MarthandaVarma is written by C.V. Raman Pillai which was published in 1891. It is presented as a historical romance recounting the history of Venad (Travancore) during the final period of Rajah Rama Varma's reign and subsequently to the accession of Marthanda Varma. 85. Guallatire is one of the most active volcanoes in northern Chile. 86. The correct sequence is KochiMangalore- MumbaiKoyli 87. 88. 89. Sriharikota does not have a heavy water plant. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is a rocket launch centre located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. 90. The Thiruvananthapuram Rajdhani (12431/32) is the longest running Rajdhani Express train, which covers about 3,149 km.

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It runs from Thiruvanathapuram Central (Kerala)to Hazrat Nizamuddin(Delhi). Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of Kerala. 91. The shape of the trajectory will be undeterministic. 92. Kota petrochemical industry is the most westward located in India. 93. 1. Manas- Asom 2. Pachmarhi - Madhya Pradesh 3. Nokrek - Meghalaya 4. Achanakmar-Amarkantak- Chhattisgarh, 94. El Nino is a warm ocean current. The term El Niño refers to the large-scale oceanatmosphere climate interaction linked to a periodic warming in sea surface temperatures across the central and eastcentral Equatorial Pacific. 95. Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It separates South and Little Andaman. 96. 97. Farmers are advisedto mix lime with soil while farming their fields becauseit increases the pH of acidic soil (the higher the pH the less acidic the soil); in other words, soil acidity is reduced and alkalinity increased. 98. Secondary waves (S waves) are the second fastest travelling seismic waves (after primary waves) and can travel through solids but not through liquids or gases. It helps scientists to understand the internal structure of the Earth. 99. Trade winds blow from the subtropical highs or horse latitudes toward the low pressure of the ITCZ(Intertropical Convergence Zone). 100. While all other seas in the world are defined at least in part by land boundaries, the Sargasso Sea is defined only by ocean currents. The Sargasso Sea does not have a coastline as it is located in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean. 101. Cordilleras of North America is a part of the Cordilleran mountain system found in the western part of North America and extendingthrough the coterminous United States and Alaska, Canada, and Mexico. 102. Population dividend or Demographic dividend refers to a period - usually 20 to 30 years - when fertility rates fall due to significant reductions in child and infant mortality rates. It occurs when the proportion of working people in the total population is high because this indicates that more people have the potential to be productive and contribute to growth of the economy.

MockTime.com 103. World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated every year on 5 June to raise global awareness to take positive environmental action to protect nature and the planet Earth. It is run by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 104. Osamu Shimomura won Noble prize in chemistry. He worked for green Fluorescent protein. 105. A Red Data Book contains lists of species whose continued existence is threatened. Species are classified into different categories of perceived risk. Each Red Data Book usually deals with a specific group of animals or plants (e. reptiles, insects, mosses). It has been published by International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). 106. 107. The gross revenue from the telecom sector in India accounts for 7% of the GDP (2009). 108. The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS) is a training and research establishment of the Indian Army. In 1948, Indian Army established a ski school in Gulmarg which later became the High Altitude Warfare School of the Indian army. 109. Irani Trophy is associated with cricket. It was named after the late Z.R. Irani, who was associated with the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) 110. Bangladesh, Pakistan, and India have consistently occupied the top 3 places of top troop contributor lists for almost a decade (United Nations, 2005-2013). 111. Those who are employed for long hours, at low pay and in poor working conditions are called sweat labour. This can be common for workers in many poor countries. 112. The second goal in the United Nations Millennium Development Goal ensures that, by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls alike, will be able to complete a full course of primary schooling. 113. Himadri Station is India's first Arctic research station located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway. It was inaugurated on the 1st of July, 2008 by the Minister of Earth Sciences. 114. The India-US Combined Military Training Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2014 concluded at Ranikhet in Uttarakhand on 30 September 2014. It was the tenth exercise in the Yudh Abhyas series that started in 2004 under US Army Pacific partnership program.

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115. Operation Meghdoot was the codename for the Indian Armed Forces operation to capture the Siachen Glacier in the disputed Kashmir region, precipitating the Siachen Conflict. It was launched on 13 April 1984. This military operation was unique as the first assault launched in the world's highest battlefield. 116. 117. 118. The Nitaqat law makes it mandatory for local companies to hire one Saudi national for every 10 migrant workers. There has been widespread perception that the policy would lead to denial of job opportunities for a large number of Indians working there. The Nitaqat (naturalisation) law, reserves 10 per cent private jobs for the locals. 119. Heena Sindhu is associated with shooting. 120. In June 2014, the Great Himalayan National Park was added to the UNESCO list ofWorld Heritage Sites.The UNESCO World Heritage Site Committee granted the status to the park under the criteria of ―exceptional natural beauty and conservation of biological diversity‖. It is located in Kullu region in the state of Himachal Pradesh.

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CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. The natural cause of whitening of corals i.e. coral bleaching is: (a) Increased photo synthetically active radiation and UV light band (b) Changes in salinity of sea water (c) Increased or reduced temperature of sea water (d) Stress-introduced expulsion or death of their symbiotic protozoa, zooxanthellae Q2. In the ongoing Holocene extinctions that continue into 21st century include: 1. Siberian Tiger 2. Giant Panda 3. Atlas Bear 4.Giant Haast‘s eagle (a) 1,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 1,2,3 (d) (4)2,3,4 Q3. Island endemic populations are more prone to extinction from overexploitation as : 1. they occur at low density 2. they succumb to climate change due to increased C02 3. they are reaching reduced reproductive rates 4.they face constant threat due to human migration and civil unrest. (a) 1,2 (b) 1,3 (c) 2,3 (d) 1,2, 3,4 Q4. Which of the following animals have a diet mainly consisting of bamboo? (a) Hares and rabbits (b) Sloth bear (c) pandas (d) Golden langur‘s Q5. 'Freon' used as refrigerants is chemically known as (a) chlorinated hydrocarbon (b) fluorinated hydrocarbon (c) chlorofluoro hydrocarbon (d) fluorinated aromatic compound

Q6. Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches? (a) Red phosphorus (b) White phosphorus (c) Phosphorus trioxide (P203) (d) Black phosphorus Q7. Statement I: Soaps do not form lather with water containing salts of calcium and magnesium. Statement II: Calcium and magnesium salts of long chain fatty acids are insoluble in water. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q8. Which one of the following is not a mixture? (a) Tootpaste (b) Toilet soap (c) Baking soda (d) Vinegar Q9. Contact lenses are made from (a) polyvinyl chloride (b) polystyrene (c) lucite (d) teflon Q10. Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are (a) C-12 and C-13 (b) C-13 and C-14 (c) C-12 and C-14 (d) C-12 and carbon black Q11. Iodised salt is a (a) mixture of potassium iodide and common salt (b) mixture of molecular iodide and common salt (c) compound formed by combination of potassium iodide and common salt (d) compound formed by molecular iodine and common salt Q12. What type of mixture is smoke?

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(a) Solid mixed with a gas (b) Gas mixed with a gas (c) Liquid mixed with a gas (d) Gas mixed with a liquid and a solid Q13. The form of carbon known as graphite (a) is harder than diamond (b) contains a higher percentage of carbon than diamond (c) is a better electrical conductor than diamond (d) has equal carbon-to-carbon distances in all directions Q14. The chemical used as a chemical weapon in the First World War was (a) carbon monoxide (b) hydrogen cyanide (c) mustard gas (d) water gas Q15. Morphine is (a) a terpene (b) a flavonoid (c) an alkaloid (d) a tannin Q16. L-dopa is a drug that is used to treat (a) TB (b) cancer (c) Parkinson‘s disease (d) malaria Q17. Who gave the first evidence of the bigbang theory? (a) Edwin Hubble (b) Albert Einstein (c) S Chandrasekhar (d) Stephen Hawking

MockTime.com (c) Both the angle of contact of water with glass and that of mercury with glass are acute (d) None of the above

Q20. The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as heavy, the time period will be (a) more than 2 s (b) 2s (c) 1 s (d) less than 1 s Q21. Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of ink? (a) Fountain pen (b) Ballpoint pen (c) Gel pen (d) Both ballpoint and gel pens Q22. When an incandescent electric bulb glows (a) the electric energy is completely converted into light (b) the electric energy is partly converted into light energy and partly into heat energy (c) the light energy is converted into electric energy (d) the electric energy is converted into magnetic energy

Q18. Fat can be separated from milk in a cream separation because of (a) cohesive force (b) gravitational force (c) centrifugal force (d) centripetal force

Q23. In an observation, a-particles, bparticles and g-rays have same energies. Their penetrating power in a given medium in increasing order will be (a) a, b, g (b) b, g, a (c) a, g, b (d) b, a, g

Q19. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The angle of contact of water with glass is acute while that of mercury with glass is obtuse (b) The angle of contact of water with glass is obtuse, while that of mercury with glass is acute Physics C-3

Q24. Butter floats in droplets on the surface of a hot soup. But when the soup cools, the droplets spread out to form a thin layer on the surface. This happens because (a) Butter is less dense than the soup (b) Butter is more viscous than the soup (c) Surface tension of the soup increases on cooling

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(d) Butter forms an insulation layer to slow down cooling Q25. A neon sign emits red light which comes from (a) A red hot filament inside the glass tubing (b) A luminous gas at low pressure (c) A luminous red liquid (d) The oxidation of neon Q26. A 100 m long train is moving at a speed of 90 kmh-1. Another train moving in the same direction at a speed 126 kmh-1 on a parallel track, crosses the first train in 30 seconds. What is the length of the faster train? (a) 100 m (b) 120 m (c) 150 m (d) 200 m Q27. Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in (a) Space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation (b) Surgery, magnetic levitation and telemetry (c) Space travel, surgery and telemetry. (d) Space travel, magnetic levitation and telemetry Q28. The unit used internationally for measuring the volume of crude oil is: (a) Liter (b) Gallon (c) Barrel (d) US gallon Q29. The Sarkaria Commission Report deal with which one the following? (a) Corruption in India (b) Centre-state relations (c) local governance (d) Inter-river dispute Q30. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned? (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV Q31. Consider the following statements 1. The Ministries Departments of the Union Government are created by the Prime Minister.

MockTime.com 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q32. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the right to freedom'? (a) When the state disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion (b) When the state disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women (c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland. (d) All of the above Q33. Consider the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India 1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q34. DIRECTIONS : The following questions are based on the following passage. A government in a democratic country has to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its

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nuclear deal with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women), then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only those particular new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of democracy. Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at (a) first hour of the sitting (b) last hour of the sitting (c) 12: 00 noon (d) no fixed timings Q35. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning Commission? (a) It is an advisory body and makes recommendations to the Cabinet (b) It is responsible for the execution of development programmes and plans (c) It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the most effective and balanced utilisation of the country's resources (d) It indicates the factors which tend to retard economic development Q36. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India 1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers. 2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament. 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4

MockTime.com Q37. Consider the following statements According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as 1. A contract 2. A sacrament 3. Mutual understanding 4. Indissoluble Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Q38. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the following statements is correct? (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative state and not those matters pending before any court (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature (c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status so far (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat Q39. India's Look East Policy was conceived in the early 1990s at a time when India was in the process of adjusting to the post-cold war watershed changes in the international geostrategic environment. The Look East Policy 1. reflects both historical imperatives and contemporary compulsion of the post-cold war new world order. 2. seeks to optimise India's synergies in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. 3. has led to India's participation in AsiaPacific forums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit, BIMSTEC and other institutions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 Q40. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted (a) under constitutional provision with specific mention for it (b) through an Act of Parliament (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard (d) through constitutional amendment

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Q41. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List. 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable 3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

MockTime.com Q46. In the human body, Cowper's glands form a part of which one of the following system? (a) Digestive system (b) Endocrine system (c) Reproductive system (d) Nervous system Q47. Which of the following is a rich source of energy? (a) Protein (b) Lipid (c) Carbohydrate (d) Vitamin

Q42. Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned? (a) Members of the armed forces (b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of maintenance of public order (c) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up in the country (d) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up for maintenance of public order

Q48. The genetically engineered 'Golden Rice' is rich in which of the following? (a) Vitamin-A and nicotinic acid (b) P-carotene and folic acid (c) P-carotene and iron (d) Vitamin-A and niacin

Q43. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q50. The vitamin(s), which is/are generally excreted in urine, is/ are (a) viamin-A (b) vitamin-B (c) viamin-E (d) vitamin-D and K

Q44. Which of the following features of Panchayati Raj, envisaged under the 73rd Amendment of the Constitution, has been wrongly listed? (a) The elections to the Panchayats are held by the State Election Commission (b) There is mandatory reservation of seats for weaker sections and women (c) The panchayats have a fixed term of five years and, if dissolved before the expiry of this term, the elections must be held within six months (d) Finances are to be given by Planning Commission. Q45. What does sphygmomanometer measure? (a) Blood pressure (b) Velocity of fluids (c) Temperature (d) Curvature of spherical surfaces

Q49. For which one among the following diseases vaccine is yet available? (a) Tetanus (b) Malaria (c) Measles (d) Mumps

Q51. Cattle are capable of digesting cellulose present in the grass and/or fodder that they eat. This ability is attributed to the (a) presence of cellulose degrading bacteria in the rumen (b) production of cellulose by the cattle rumen (c) acids present in the rumen (d) prolonged retention of cellulose in the rumen Q52. Dog bite can cause rabies. Which among the following other animals can also cause rabies? (a) Donkey (b) Bat (c) Horse (d) Crocodile

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Q53. Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting? (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin C Q54. Which one among the following groups of items contains only biodegradable items? (a) Paper, grass, glass (b) Wood, flower, iron-scrap (c) Sewage, plastic, leather (d) Cow-dung, paddy-husk, vegetable wastes Q55. Which of the following parts are found in both plant and animal cells? (a) Cell membrane, Chloroplast, Vacuole (b) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole (c) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus (d) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Cytoplasm Q56. What does water gas comprise of? (a) Carbon monoxide ana hydrogen (b) Carbon dioxide and hvdrogen (c) Carbon monoxide and methane (d) Carbon dioxide and methane Q57. Consider the following statements 1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan. 2. The Planning commission in India is a constitutional body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q58. Statement I Deficit financing does not lead to inflation if adopted in small doses. Statement II Deficit financing is an often used tool for financing budgetary deficits. Codes: (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement (b) Both the Statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is lalse (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q59. Which of the following are included in the category of direct tax in India?

MockTime.com 1. Corporation tax 2. Tax on income 3. Wealth tax 4. Customs duty 5. Excise duty Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 Q60. Corporation tax is imposed by (a) State Government (b) Central Government (c) Local Government (d) State as well as Central Government Q61. Consider the following statements relating to the World Trade Organization (WTO): 1. The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. 2. The goal of the WTO is to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business. 3. The WTO, which is a successor body of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, came into being following the Uruguay Round of Negotiations. 4. The WTO distances itself in framing of rules on trad in intellectual property rights. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only Q62. Rise in the price of a commodity means (a) rise in the value of currency only (b) fall in the value of currency only (c) rise in the value of commodity only (d) fall in the value of currency and rise in the value of commodity Q63. Crop insurance is the monopoly of: (a) National Insurance Company (b) General Insurance Corporation (c) Life Insurance Corporation (d) NABARD Q64. Which of the following is the largest single source of the Governments earning from tax revenue? (a) Central excise

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(b) Customs (c) Corporation tax (d) Income tax Q65. Decentralised planning on the basis of Panchayati Raj institutions was recommended by (a) Balwantray Mehta Committee (b) Mahalanobis Committee (c) Asoka Mehta Committee (d) Gadgil Committee Q66. Which of the following would be a description of the term financial inclusion? (a) Use of mobile phone for financial transaction (b) Delivery of financial services at affordable cost to the poor (c) Facility to transfer money free of cost for the socially disadvantaged segments of society (d) Introduction of Know Your Customer (KYC) norm Q67. The Committee to recommend the adoption of Green National Accounting (GNA) identified three types of assets. Which of the following is not one of the types identified by it ? (a) Mineral capital (b) physical capital (c) natural capital (d) human capital Q68. As the Indian economy develops, the share of agriculture in the GDP has been on the decline, touching around 18 per cent now. Still, agriculture is important in the economy of the country because: (a) India has traditionally been an agricultural economy (b) agriculture produces raw material for industries (c) agricultural sector is heavily subsidized (d) it employs more than 50 per cent of the people directly Q69. With which one of the following did the Civil Disobedience Movement in India commerce? (a) The Dandi March (b) No Tax campaign by Sardar Patel (c) The unfurling of the National flag by Nehru (d) Mahatma Gandhi‘s going on fast

Q70. The Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as ‗Turning of the wheel of law‘ at (a) Sanchi (b) Sarnath (c) Sravasti (d) Bodh Gaya Q71. In which of the following years was the All India Trade Union Congress formed in Bombay? (a) 1918 (b) 1919 (c) 1920 (d) 1921 Q72. Consider the following statements about National Calendar of India 1. The National Calendar based on the Saka era with Chaitra as its first month. 2. Dates of the National Calendar have a permanent correspondence with dates of the Gregorian calendar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Q73. Consider the following statements and identify the person referred to therein with the help of the codes given below During his stay in England, he endeavoured to educate the British people about their responsibilities as rulers of India. He delivered speeches and published articles to support his opposition to the unjust and oppressive regime of the British Raj. In 1867, he helped to establish the East India Association of which he became the Honorary Secretary. (a) Pherozeshah Mehta (b) Mary Carpenter (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Anand Mohan Bose Q74. Consider the following statements about the famous traveller, Ibn Batuta 1. He was a Moroccan traveller. 2. He narrated his experiences while travelling the sub continent in the 14th century in Kitab-ul-Hind.

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3. He was sent as the envoy of Sultan of Delhi to China. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 2

(c) He set-up the Home Rule League at Poona (d) He supported the Age of Consent Bill

Q75. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) The Second Battle: Defeat of Jaichand of Kannauj of Tarain by Muhammad of Ghori (b) The First Battle of: Defeat of Sikander Lodhi by Panipat Babur (c) The Battle of Chausa: Defeat of Humayun by Sher Shah (d) The Battle of Khanwa: Defeat of Rana Pratap by Akbar DIRECTIONS (Qs. 102-103): The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statments carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below

Q80. What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis? (a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufisaints for seeking barkat (spiritual grace) (b) Reciting divine name (c) Offering free kitchens run on futuh (unasked for charity) (d) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts)

Q76. Which one among the following was not a possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah‘s military compaign in Delhi? (a) Weak Mughal emperor (b) Lack of strong defence in the North-West frontier (c) Late preparation for the defence of Delhi (d) Use of superior military technology by the invading army Q77. Which of the following statements about Permanent Settlement are correct? 1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants. 2. The Zamindars were recognised as the proprietors of land. 3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue demand. 4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the peasants and the government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 Q78. Which one among the following statements regarding Bal Gangadhar Tilak is not correct? (a) He propounded the theory of the Arctic Home of the Aryans (b) He founded the Anti-Cow Killing Society

Q79. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q81. Statement I: The social institutions of caste in India underwent major changes in the colonial period. Statement II: Caste, in contemporary society is more a product of ancient Indian tradition than of colonialism. (a) Both the statemtns are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Feudalism in the early medieval period 1. The revenue assignments were called Bhoga. 2. The hereditary chiefs neither collected revenues nor assumed administrative powers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q83. Consider the following statements from Kalhana‘s Rajatarangini 1. The common people ate rice and Utpalasaka (a wild.vegetable of.bitter taste). 2. Harsha introduced into Kashmir a general dress befitting a king which included a long coat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1

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(b) Only 2 (c) Both1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q84. Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's South African experience (1893 - 1914) is/are true? 1. Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa. 2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against the ordinance of compulsory registration and passes for Indians. 3. Gandhi began his political career with struggles against the imposition excessive taxes on Indians in Cape Town. Select the correct answer using the code give below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Q85. The Island of Honshu is located in which one of the following countries? (a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia (c) Japan (d) South Korea Q86. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? River City A. Gomuti Lucknow B. Saryu Ayodhya C. Alakananda Badrinath D. Narmada Satna (a) (b) (c) (d) Q87. Consider the following regions of India 1. Western Ghats 2. Aravalli Hills 3. Eastern Himalayas Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot spot/hot spots? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Q88. Assertion Convectional rains occur during premonsoon summer in India. Reason (R) Such rains occur due to adiabatic cooling. (a) (b)

MockTime.com (c) (d) Q89. Which one of the following trains/railways passes through Germany, France, Austria, Hungary and Romania? (a) Trans-Siberia (b) Cape-Cairo (c) Orient Express (d) Union and Central Pacific Q90. Which one of the following places is not located on the bank of river Ganga? (a) Uttarkashi (b) Kanpur (c) Fatehpur (d) Bhagalpur Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the following topographical features found from upper to lower course of a river? (a) Ox-bow lake-Rapids-Estuary (b) Rapids-Estuary-Ox-bow lake (c) Rapids-Ox-bow lake-Estuary (d) Estuary-Ox-bow lake-Rapids Q92. The agricultural production in different parts of India is very much affected by varying intensities of floods and droughts. Which one of the following measures would not be sustainable in this respect? (a) Provision for extensive irrigation facilities (b) Change in the crop calendar (c) Avoidance of flood and drought prone areas for agriculture (d) Emphasis on selection of crops best suited to flood and drought conditions Q93. Which one among the following best explains the reason for the Eastern and Western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean experiencing frequent earth-quake? (a) There are deep ocean trenches along these margins (b) High mountain stretch along the continental margins adjacent to this ocean (c) The currents of the vast Pacific Ocean continue to dash against the continental margins (d) These margins coincide with the plate margins Q94. Kanha National Park belongs to which one among the following biogeographical areas in the world?

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(a) Tropical Sub-humid Forests (b) Tropical Humid Forests (c) Tropical Dry Forests (d) Tropical Moist Forests Q95. Match the following List I (Tiger Reserve) List II (State) A. Indravati -1. Karnatka B. Periyar -2. Odisha C. Simlipal -3. Kerala D. Bandipur - 4. Chhattisgarh Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 Q96. Which one among the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? (a) It is a large military helicopter (b) It is a large military transport aircraft (c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun (d) It is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014 Q97. Which one among the following statements regarding Chinook winds is not correct? (a) These are local winds (b) They descend along the Eastern slopes of the rocky mountain in mid-latitudes (c) They bring lots of rain with them (d) They benefit agriculture Q98. Match the following List I(Biosphere Reserve) List II(State) A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha B.Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamul Nadu D. Simeslipal 4. Asom Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 Q99. Which one among the following Indian rivers originatesin Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to meet the Bay of Bengal in Andhra coast? (a) westerlies

MockTime.com (b) doldrums (c) Krishna (d) Godavari Q100. Which one among the following is a sea without having a coastline? (a) North sea (b) Sargasso sea (c) Baltic sea (d) Bering sea Q101. The humidity of air measured in percentage is called (a) absolute humidity (b) specific humidity (c) relative humidity (d) all of these Q102. The vegetation type characterised by (i) a large expanse of grassland with scattered trees and shrubs, (ii) lying between tropical rain forest and tropical steppes and deserts and (iii) flat-topped trees, is called (a) mid-latitude broad-leaf mixed forest (b) temperate rain forest (c) tropical savanna (d) mid-latitude grassland Q103. Meghnad Saha is known for his contribution in which one of the following fields? (a) Physics (b) Medical Science (c) Environmental Science (d) History Q104. Which one of the following pairs is not correct matched? Person Bank (a) OP Bhatt: SBI (b) KV Kamath: ICICI (c) Aditya Puri: HDFC (d) Vikram Pandit: IDBI Q105. What is the correct chronological order of conferring Bharat Ratna to the following? 1. MS Subbalakshmi 2. Professor Amartya Sen 3. Dr APJ Abdul Kalam 4. Sushri Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2

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Q106. Which one of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The committee on the status of women in India (NSWI) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women. 2. The first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was Mrs Jayanti Patnaik. 3. The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q107. Consider the following statements UNESCO's World Heritage mission is to 1. take over the management, maintenance and preservation of World Heritage sites. 2. encourage state parties to the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage to nominate sites within their national territory for inclusion on the World Heritage List. 3. provide emergency assistance for World Heritage sites in immediate danger. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3

MockTime.com (d) Iran Q110. In which one of the following pair of states has the Indian Army launched "Operation Good Samaritan"? (a) Asom and Manipur (b) Manipur and Nagaland (c) Asom and Nagaland (d) Nagaland and Jammu and Kashmir Q111. Sukhoi-30 MKI Squadron is not stationed at (a) Tezpur (b) Pune (c) Jamnagar (d) Bareilly Q112. Which one among the following is not included in the basic functions of operating system? (a) Job control (b) Job scheduling (c) Memory management (d) Data management Q113. Sabin Award is given for the conservation of (a) amphibians (b) reptiles (c) birds (d) corals

Q108. Consider the following statements 1. The DRDO developed two variants of Prithvi Missile. 2. Prithvi II is equipped with features of maneuverability to deceive the enemy defence system. 3. Inducation of Prithvi Missile enhances the capability of the Indian Army to attack multiple targets simultaneously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

Q114. Assume that India and Pakistan are engaged in an increasingly volatile situation over the LoC in Jammu and Kashmir with a Kargil type infiltration by Pakistan. A conventional war between both the countries is inevitable under the shadow of nuclear weapons. In this situation, what is the nuclear capacity that India should possess against Pakistan to deter a nuclear exchange? (a) A first use nuclear policy (b) A much larger nuclear arsenal than Pakistan (c) A credible nuclear deterrence with second strike capability (d) An intercontinental ballistic missile with a range of 5000 km

Q109. Which Asian team will be out of the next FIFA Football World Cup for the first time after a gap of 20 years? (a) Saudi Arabia (b) South Korea (c) Japan

Q115. In the year 2012, India undertook its largest military exercise since independence. This was named (a) Yuddh Abhyas (b) Rudra Akrosh (c) Sudarshan Shakti

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(d) Shoor Veer Q116. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts, launched recently in India 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video conferencing. 2. They will follow the some procedures that are laid out for hearing appeals in as open court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q117. Consider the following statement Rich countries have largely cheated the developing countries of the 30 billion dollars of funds. They had committed to transfer to the poor ones between 2010 and 2012. Which one among the following relating to the above statement is not correct? (a) The above statement is a report out of Oxfamresearch (b) The developed nations only provided one third of the total funding (c) Green Peace International stated that it is a false start' than a 'fast start' (d) Oxfam's research report says that levels of public climate finance are set to fall in the year 2013 compared to past 3 year Q118. In April, 2013, an agreement was signed, betweenIndia and a country which extends the use of training and exercise facilities in India to the army of that country for a further period of five years from August, 2013. Sort out the country from among the following (a) Malaysia (b) Singapore (c) Myanmar (d) Bangladesh Q119. The concept of hegemony is used to understand the capacity to 'manufacture consent'. Here, hegemony implies 1. class ascendency in ideological spheres. 2. deploying ideological resources to shape behaviour of weaker states/powers. 3. provision of global public goods by a dominant power. 4. military dominance in relative and absolute terms. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2

MockTime.com (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 4 (d) Only 1 Q120. Consider the following statements: 1. World Vitiligo Day is observed on 25th June every year. 2. Vitiligo is a progressive skin disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither l nor 2 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. d 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. A 60. D 61. a 62. B 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. b 76. d 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. b 82. a 83. c 84. d 85. c 86. d 87. b 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. c 92. c 93. d 94. c 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. a 101. c 102. c 103. a 104. d 105. b 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. d 110. b 111. c 112. b 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. c 117. a 118. b 119. a 120. c 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Chlorofluoro carbon (CF2Cl2) is also known as freon. It is used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditions. It is also used as propellant in aerosols and foams. 6. Red phosphorus is mostly used in the manufacture of safety matches and in making smoke bombs. 7. Soaps do not form lather with hard water which contains salts of calcium and magnesium because calcium and magnesium salts of long chain fatty acids are insoluble in water. 8. Sodium bicarbonate also known as baking soda, is the chemical compound with the formula NaHCO3. 9. Contact lenses are made from lucite. It is a polymer of methyl methacrylate. The other names of lucite are plexiglass, acrylite and perspex. 10. The method of determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radioactive isotope of carbon

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is known as Radiocarbon dating or carbon dating. Radioactive isotopes have unstable nuclei that break down i.e., decay and form other elements. C-12 and C-14 are the two isotopes of carbon which is used to determine the age of fossil. 11. Iodised salt is a compound formed by combination of potassium iodide and common salt. 12. Smoke is a collection of airborne solid and liquid particulates and gases emitted when a material undergoes combustion or pyrolysis, together with entrapment of liquid droplets or solid particulates in a flowing gas. 13. Graphite is a very good conductor, while diamond has a very low electrical conductivity. 14. 15. 16. 17. Edwin Hubble gave the first evidence of the big-bang theory. 18. Centrifugal force separates fat from milk. 19. For ordinary water and glass it is about 8° (acute angle) and for mercury and glass it is about 135° (obtuse angle). 20. Time period of a simple pendulum T = 2 g l p depends on its length 'l ' and acceleration due to gravity 'g' and independent of mass of the bob. 21. Fountain pen uses capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of ink. 22. When current flows through the filament of incandescent electric bulb, it gets heated up. Soon it becomes white hot and starts emitting light. 23. g - rays are the most penetrating rays b particles are moderately penetrating and a particles are least penetrating. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll(Article 5-11) of the constitution. 31. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article 77 of the Constitution for the allocation of business of the Government of India. The Ministries/ Departments of the Government are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under these Rules. The Cabinet

MockTime.com Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board of the Republic of India. 32. 33. Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court of India :Article148 (a) The Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office :Article 148 (d) 34. In Indian parliament, Zero hour starts at 12:00 noon. Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. Nobody knows which issue a member would raise during this hour. 35. The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by an executive resolution of the government of India. The Planning Commission is neither constitutional nor a statutory body. In India, it is the supreme organ of planning for social and economic development. It is not responsible for taking and implementing decisions. It is only a staff agency, an advisory body and has no executive responsibility. 36. According to Article 78 it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister- (a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation; (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for; (c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister; 37. According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as a Holy Sanskar (Sacrament). 38. Award has the same effect as of a Civil Court decree. The Supreme Court has held that award of the Lok Adalat is as good as the decree of a Court. The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to be decrees of

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Court and therefore the courts have all the powers in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by itself. It was the legal services authority act 1987, which gave statutory status to Lok Adalat. 39. 'Look East' policy does not optimize India's synergies in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. In many cases, India's membership to these forums has been a result of attempts by the region to balance China's growing influence in the area. Notably, Japan brought India into ASEAN+6 to dilute the ASEAN+3 process, where China is dominant, while Singapore and Indonesia played a significant role in bringing India into the East Asia Summit. The United States and Japan have also lobbied for India's membership in the AsiaPacific Economic Cooperation. 40. The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India, on the recommendation of the Advisory Planning Board constituted in 1946, under the chairmanship of KC Neogi. Thus, the Planning Commission is neither constitutional nor a statutory body. Planning commission has been replaced by new institution namely NITI Aayog. 41. Article 248- Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Article 252- If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more States to be desirable that any of the matters with respect to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the States except as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should be regulated in such States by Parliament by law. Article 253- Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body. 42. Members of Armed Forces are not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned. 43. 44. 45. Sphygmomanometer is an instrument to measure the blood pressure. It is made up of

MockTime.com an inflatable cuff to restrict the blood flow and a mercury or manometer to measure pressure. 46. Cowper‘s gland is related with reproductive system. Cowper‘s gland is the bulbourethal gland found in human males. They are found in pair and secrete viscous secretion called pre ejaculate that helps in coitus. 47. Carbohydrates is an important nutrient in human. It is a good and rich source of energy. 48. Golden rice is rich in b -carotene and iron. It is a variety of Oryza sativa evolved through process of bio technology to synthesize b -carotene, a precursor of provitamin A. 49. Malaria is a protozoan infection caused by the genus plasmodium in humans. No vaccine is yet manufactured for this illness. 50. Vitamin-B is water soluble. Its over-dose is excreted out in urine, vitamin A, D, E and K are fat soluble therefore, they are not excreted in urine. 51. Mammalian digestive system do not secrete enzymes to digest cellulose, but the cellulose digesting bacteria present in the rumen of cattles can digest the cellulose existing in fodder. 52. Some bats are sanguivorous feeding on animal blood. When it sucks the blood of an animal which is suffering from rabies, it can cause rabies if it bites another animal or man. 53. Vitamin K is a group of structurally similar to fatsoluble vitamins that are essential for the synthesis of certain proteins needed for blood coagulation or clotting. 54. A biodegradable product gets decomposition safely and quickly, through biological process into the raw materials and disappear into the environment. Cowdung, padddy-husk and vegetable wastes, are biodegradable products. 55. Cell Membrane, Cytoplasm and Nucleus are found in both plant and animal cells. 56. Water gas is a synthetic gas, having CO2 and H2. The gas is produced by passing steam over a red hot hydrocarbon fuel as coke. 57. 58. Deficit Financing is an expansionist device of currency machine and is accompanied by inflation and has many adverse effects on the economy. It has also

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been compared to a drug market in red 'Poison' which is prescribed for a certain purpose and has to be administered in small regulated dose. When the outlay of a government exceeds its tax revenues, the government budget is said to be in deficit; government spending in excess of tax receipts is known as deficit spending. Governments usually issue bonds to match their deficit. 59. Corporation Tax, Wealth Tax and Income Tax are in the category of direct tax. 60. Corporation Tax is imposed by State as well as Central Government. Corporation tax is imposed on the income or capital of some types of legal entities. The taxes may also be referred to as income tax. 61. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world's trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to help producers of goods and services, exporters and importers conduct their business. The Uruguay Round led to the creation of the World Trade Organization, with GATT remaining as an integral part of the WTO agreements. The agreements fall into a simple structure with six main parts, intellectual property (Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)) was one of them. 62. When the price level rises, each unit of currency buys fewer goods and services.So rise in the price of a commodity means fall in the value of currency only. [2007-II] 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath. Sarnath is a city located in the north-east of Varanasi near the confluence of the Ganges and the Gomati rivers in Uttar Pradesh, 71. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded on 31 October 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president. Upto 1945 Congressmen, Socialists, Communists worked in the AITUC which was the central trade union organisation of workers of

MockTime.com India.It is the oldest trade union federation in India. 72. The Saka calendar used as the official civil calendar in the country is the National Calendar of India. The Saka calendar, often referred as the Hindu calendar is originally named as Saka Samvat. There are 12 months in Saka Calendar which are named as Vaisakha,Jyestha ,Asadha,Sravana, Bhadrapada, Asvina, Kartika Margasirsa, Pausa, Magh, Phalgura,Chaitra. 73. Dadabhai Naoroji was a Parsi intellectualand Indian political and social leader. His book Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India brought attention to the draining of India's wealth into Britain. 74. Kitab-Ul-Hind was written by Al Biruni. Ibn Batuta is known for his extensive travels, accounts of which were published in the Rihla. In 1332, Ibn Battuta decided to go to India. He was greeted openheartedly by the Sultan of Delhi. There he was given the job of a judge. He stayed in India for a period of 8 years and then left for China. 75. First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fough between two mega-powers- Babur, then ruler of Kabul and Ibrahim Lodhi, king of Delhi Sultanate. It was fought near Panipat (present day Haryana) . Babur won the battle and established the Mughal Empire.Second Battle of Panipat (1556) was fought between Akbar (Ruler of Mughal Dynasty) and Muhammad Adil Shah (ruler of Pashtan Suri Dynasty) , along with his Prime Minister Hemu. Third Battle of Panipat (1761) was fought between the Afghans and the Marathas. The battle lasted for two months which ultimately resulted in the defeat of Marathas and end of their dominance in India. 76. Nadir Shah, was the founder of the Afsharid dynasty. Nadir Shah led his army which consisted of 80,000 armymen. He placed 3,000 of his army men in the front as a clear line of defence against the Mughal army. Nadir Shah advanced towards India in 1738. At the battle of Karnal on 13 February 1739, Muhammad Shah was defeated and surrendered. The whole city of Delhi was destroyed, looted, plundered and ruined by the army of Nadir Shah. Nadir Shah took with him the Peacock throne built by Shah Jahan. He also took the legendary "Koh-inoor" diamond. 77. On the basis of the report submitted by Sir John Shore Cornwallis introduced land

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revenue settlement for ten years with Zamindars in 1789 but the same was made permanent in 1793 by the proclamation of Cornwallis and it was known as Permanent Land Revenue settlement. The basic features of the settlement were as follows: 1. The Zamindars were made hereditary owners of the land under their possession. They and their successors exercised total control over lands. 2. The Zamindars could sell and purchase lands. 3. The state had no direct contact with the peasants. 4. The company's share in the revenue was fixed permanently with the Zamindars. 78. Considered as Father of Indian National Movement; Founded "Deccan Education Society" to impart quality education to India's youth; was a member of the Municipal Council of Pune, Bombay Legislature, and an elected 'Fellow' of the Bombay University; formed Home Rule League in 1916 to attain the goal of Swaraj. The Age of Consent Act, 1891 was a legislation enacted in British India on 19 March 1891 which raised the age of consent for sexual intercourse for all girls, married or unmarried, from ten to twelve years in all jurisdictions, its violation subject to criminal prosecution as rape.It was opposed by Hindu nationalists including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. 79. Sufismismystical Islamic belief and practice in which Muslims seek to find the truth of divine love and knowledge through direct personal experience of God. 80. Ziyarat is used to refer to a form of pilgrimage to sites associated with Muhammad and his family members and descendants. Sites of pilgrimage include mosques, graves, battlefields, mountains, and caves. 81. 82. Bhoga included taxes of fruits, wood, foodgrains etc to the king. They were collected by hereditary chiefs. 83. Rajatarangini points out that the scarcity of rice invariably resulted in disastrous famine. This clearly proves that rice was the principal food of the people and Utpala Saka was a kind of wildgrowing herb of bitter taste generally taken by common people. Kalhana's Rajatarangini is the most famous histori cal poem which records the oldest and fullest history of the legendary kings of Kashmir as well as gives accounts of the Kashmiri kings of the historical period. Harshvardhan

MockTime.com introduced a general dress befitting a king which includes a long coat. 84. In 1893,Mahatma Gandhi accepted an offer from a firm of Muslims to represent them legally in Pretoria, capital of Transvaal in the Union of South Africa. They were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa. 85. The island of Honshu is located in Japan. 86. The source of the Narmada is Amarkantak in the Anuppur District (eastern Madhya Pradesh). 87. The Western Ghats or Sahyadri is one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity in the world. Eastern Himalaya is situated between Central Nepal in the west and Myanmar has been declared a biodiversity hotspot by Conservation International. 88. 89. The Venice Simplon-Orient-Express passed through the UK, France, Switzerland, Austria, Italy, Czech Republic, Germany, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria and Turkey. 90. Fatehpur is located on the banks of the sacred rivers Ganges and Yamuna. 91. Correct sequence is Rapids- Ox-bow Lake-Estuary Rapids are sections of a river where the river bed has a relatively steep gradient, causing an increase in water velocity and turbulence.An ox-bow lake is a Ushaped body of water that forms when a wide meander from the main stem of a river is cut off, creating a free-standing body of water.An estuary is a body of water formed where freshwater from rivers and streams flows into the ocean, mixing with the seawater. 92. Avoidance of flood and drought prone areas for agriculture would not be sustainable in this respect. 93. The eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean experience frequent earthquake because these margins coincide with the plate margins. 94. Kanha National Park belongs to tropical moist dry deciduous forest. It is a tiger reserve of India and the largest national park of Madhya Pradesh. 95. Tiger Reserves States 1. Indravati Tiger Reserve - Chhattishgarh 2. Periyar Tiger Reserve - Kerala, 3. Simlipal Tiger Reserve Odisha 4. Bandipur Tiger Reserve Karnataka. 96. C-5 M Super Galaxy is a large military transport aircraft. It is designed and

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manufactured by Lockheed Martin. It is operated by the US Air Force (USAF). 97. Along the eastern slopes of the Rockies, the Chinook wind provides a welcome respite from the long winter chill. Impact of Chinooks Loss of moisture due to significant drops in humidity. Soil moisture is lost, and the high winds may result in soil loss Loss of soil moisture Summer Chinooks can damage small plants and agriculture products Susceptible people may get headaches or suffer nervous disorders Rapid Large Temperature Changes Can Occur Snow may melt or evaporate through sublimation 98. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Assam and UNESCO Natural World Heritage site which is a Project Tige r Reserve.The Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve is situated in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh state.Simlipal National Park is a national park and a tiger reserve situated in the Indian state of Odisha. 99. Krishna river originates in the western ghats near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra. The Krishna river is around 1,290 km in length. It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before merging in the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi in Andhra Pradesh. 100. 101. The amount of water vapour in the air at any given time is usually less than that required to saturate the air. The relative humidity is the percent ofsaturation humidity, generally calculated in relation to saturated vapour density. Re 100% actual vapor density lative Humidity x saturation vapor density = 102. A Savannais a rolling grassland scattered with shrubs and isolated trees, which can be found between a tropical rainforest and desert biome. Savannas are also known as tropical grasslands. They are found in a wide band on either side of the equator on the edges of tropical rainforests. 103. Meghnad Saha was an Indian astrophysicist best known for his development of the Saha equation, used to describe chemical and physical conditions in stars. 104. Vikram Pandit- CEO of City Group

MockTime.com 105. Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam: 1997 MS Subbalakshmi: 1998 Professor Amartya Sen: 1999 Lata Mangeshkar: 2001 106. The objective of the NCW is to represent the rights of women in India and to provide a voice for their issues and concerns. The subjects of their campaigns have included dowry, politics, religion, equal representation for women in jobs, and the exploitation of women for labour. They have also discussed police abuses against women. 107. UNESCO's World Heritage mission is to· Encourage countries to sign the World Heritage Convention; nominate sites within their national territory; establish management plans and set up reporting systems on the state of conservation of their World Heritage Sites; · Help national governments to safeguard World Heritage properties by providing technical assistance and professional training; · Provide emergency assistance for the World Heritage sites in immediate danger; · Carry out public awareness activities for World Heritage conversation; · Support participation of the local population in the preservation of their cultural and natural heritage; · Encourage international cooperation in the conservation of world's cultural and natural heritage. 108. The Prithvi missile project encompassed developing 3 variants for use by the Indian Army, Indian Air Force and the Indian Navy. Prithvi I - Army Version Prithvi- ll - Air Force Version Prithvi III - Naval Version 109. Iran was eliminated from the tournament. 110. At the behest of the Chief of the Army Staff, a longterm plan was evolved for development works in Nagaland and Manipur. 111. The IAF has now deployed the Sukhoi 30MKIs at several of its bases in the eastern and the western regions of the country along the porous borders. The bases include Tezpur and Chabua in Assam along the borders with China, Bareilly in Uttar Pradesh and Jodhpur in Rajasthan along with its major home base Pune in Maharashtra. 112. A job scheduler is a computer application for controlling unattended background program execution (commonly called batch processing). 113. The Sabin Award provides a unique opportunity to acknowledge and celebrate some of the truly pioneering work that is going on to understand and tackle the decline

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and extinction of amphibians worldwide, and to get a sense of the true passion and commitment of the individuals responsible for saving species. The award of US$25,000 is given to individuals from all disciplines relevant to amphibian conservation and research anywhere in the world. Miscellaneous C-183 114. 115. Shoorveer was the biggest Military exercise of Army`s South-Western Command involving over 50,000 troops, culminated today in Hanumangarh district and nearby areas in Rajasthan. It began on March 1, 2012 and the Army Chief General V K Singh reviewed and witnessed its final stages on May 2 and 3 in Hanumangarh. 116. The Project has been conceptualized on the basis of the 'National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology in the Indian Judiciary-2005 by the e-Committee of the Supreme Court of India. 117. A report released on the eve of climate change talks in Doha has suggested that rich countries have largely cheated the developing nations of the $30 billion funds they had committed to transfer to the poor ones between 2010 and 2012. The fund has largely been a green-wash - recycling and renaming existing funding as 'climate funding' and giving loans instead of grants, the report said. Research by Oxfam now suggests the developed countries have deceived the world and largely given loans or recycled existing promises as part of the ODA commitments as contribution to the fast-track funds. 118. 119. "Hegemony is about the capacity to 'manufacture consent'. Here, hegemony implies class ascendancy in the social, political and particularly ideological….." this substantiates the first point. "this notion of hegemony suggests that a dominant power deploys not only military power but also ideological resources to shape the behaviour of competing and lesser powers spheres……". This substantiates the second point. 120. The World Vitiligo Day is observed on June 25 every year. It is an initiative aimed to build global awareness about vitiligo(skin disease). The idea of a World Vitiligo Day was first nursed by Steve Haragadon.

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is: (a) Siberian Tiger (b) Dhole (c) Black bear (d) Asiatic lion Q2. 24,zt.The richest and most diverse hotspot containing about a sixth of plant life in less than 1% of the worlds land area is: (a) Tumbes-Chopo-Magdalenda (b) Tropical Andes (c) Mediterranean Basin (d) (4) Mesoamerica Q3. Cambrian explosion occurred around (a) 580 million years ago (b) 542 million years ago (c) 530 million years ago (d) 260 million years ago Q4. Drug discovery leading to the availability of medicinal resources and further unregulated malpractices in this context result in 1.Degradation of ecosystems 2.Over-exploitation 3.Biodiversity loss 4.Resource destruction with introduction of predators and herbivores The correct response is (a) 1 only (b) 2,3 (c) 1,2, 3, 4 (d) 1,2,3 Q5. German silver is an alloy of (a) gold and silver (b) copper and silver (c) copper, zinc and silver (d) copper, zinc and nickel Q6. Which one of the following is correct? Butter is (a) a supercooled oil (b) an emulsion (c) a molecular solid (d) None of these

Q7. Which one of the following is associated with the formation of brown air in traffic congested cities? (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Nitrogen oxide (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide Q8. Which one of the following reducing agents can also act as an oxidising agent? (a) H2 (b) H2 S (c) SO2 (d) HI Q9. Water is a good coolant and is used to cool the engines of cars, buses, trucks etc. It is because water has a (a) high specific heat (b) low surface tension (c) high boiling point (d) teflon Q10. Which one among the following nontoxic gases helps in formation of enzymes which ripen fruit? (a) Acetylene (b) Ethane (c) Methane (d) Carbon dioxide Q11. Match the following lists. List I List II (Agent) (Disease) A. Arsenic1 Fluorosis B. Fluoride2 Melanosis C. Dust3 Presbycusis D. Noise4 Sillicosis Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 3142 (b) 3412 (c) 2143 (d) 2413 Q12. Which one of the following gases is supporter of combustion? (a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen Q13. Which one among the following is an example of chemical change? (a) The melting of an ice cube (b) The boiling of gasoline (c) The frying of an egg (d) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet

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Q14. The hormone that contains iodine is (a) (1)thyroxine (b) testosterone (c) insulin (d) adrenaline Q15. An example of an alkaloid is (a) isomagnolol (b) psoralen (c) magnolol (d) papaverine Q16. The state of hybridization of each carbon in the structure CH2=CH-CH=CH2 is (a) sp. (b) sp3. (c) sp2. (d) sp2d. Q17. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle 30° with the normal at the point of incidence. The ray will be deviated from its incidence direction by what angle? (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 120° (d) None of these Q18. Which one of the following is not result of surface tension? (a) Vapour formation above the liquid surface (b) Convex shape of liquid meniscus (c) Liquid rising in a capillary (d) Spherical shape of mercury fallen on the floor Q19. Why are inner lining of hot water geysers made up of copper? (a) Copper has low heat capacity (b) Copper has high electrical conductivity (c) Copper does not react with steam (d) Copper is good conductor of both heat and electricity

Q20. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel upto a certain height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel having half the area of cross-section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will (a) remain unaffected

MockTime.com (b) be reduced to half the earlier pressure (c) be increased to twice the earlier pressure (d) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier pressure Q21. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact (a) the total energy of the two spheres is conserved (b) the total charge on the two spheres is conserved (c) both the total energy and the total charge are conserved (d) the final potential is always the mean of the original potential of the two spheres Q22. In cricket match, while catching a fast moving ball, a fielder in the ground gradually pulls his hands backwards with the moving ball to reduce the velocity to zero. The act represents (a) Newton's first law of motion (b) Newton's second law of motion (c) Newton's third law of motion (d) Law of conservation of energy Q23. A person standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror approaches the mirror by 40 cm. The new distance between the person and his image in the plane mirror is (a) 60 cm (b) 1.2 m (c) 1.4 m (d) 2.0 m Q24. On the moon, an astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of a straw because (a) Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is less (b) There is no atmosphere on the moon (c) Lemonade evaporates instantaneously on the moon (d) None of the above Q25. Which of the following is the particleanti-particle pair? (a) Proton, neutron (b) Photon, electron (c) Electron, positron (d) Neutrino, neutron Q26. A tumbler, filled to the brim with water, has an ice cube floating in it. A part of the floating ice cube is above the surface of the

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water. What happens when the cube starts melting? (a) Water starts spilling over. (b) Water level remains the same. (c) Water level starts falling. (d) Water level first falls and then rises. Q27. Consider the following statements: An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the 1.Filament wire is not uniform 2.Bulb cannot be evacuated completely 3.Wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) land 2 (d) 1,2 and 3 Q28. A barrel of crude oil is equal to : (1)42 U.S. gallon (2)159 liter (3) 100 liter (4) 25 U.S. gallon Which of the above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) (с) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only Q29. Assertion (A) The number of the Members of the Union Public Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution of India. Reason (R) The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India. Codes (a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q30. Match the following List I (Schedule in the Constitution of India) List II (Subject) A. Tenth Schedule -1. Languages B. Eighth Schedule -2. Provisions as to disqualification on the grounds of defection C. First Schedule -3. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations D. Ninth Schedule -4. The States Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1

MockTime.com (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 Q31. The Veerapa Moily Commission in its report on Administrative Reforms among other aspects has suggested doing away with which one of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India? (a) Articles 305 and 306 (b) Articles 307 and 308 (c) Articles 308 and 309 (d) Articles 310 and 311 Q32. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is, vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of this power (a) he/she cannot be regulated by law (b) he/she shall be regulated by law (c) during war, the President seeks advice only from the Chiefs of the Armed Forces (d) during war the President can suspended the Fundamental Rights of citizens Q33. Which one of the following International Human Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet ratified? (a) Convention on the right of the child. (b) Convention on the Elimination of all forms of discrimination against women (c) Convention on the political rights of women (d) Convention on the nationality of married women Q34. DIRECTIONS : The following questions are based on the following passage. A government in a democratic country has to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of India of

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acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women), then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only those particular new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of democracy. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of electoral democracy which is based on (a) Right to education (b) Freedom of speech (c) Right to equality (d) Universal adult franchise Q35. Which among the following statements regarding Lord Ripon's plan for local selfgovernment in India is/are correct? 1. The district should be the maximum area served by one Committee or Local Board. 2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority of nominated official members and be presided over by an official member as Chairman. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Onty 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q36. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations? (a) Keshavananda Bharati case (b) Vishakha case (c) S R Bommai case (d) Indira Sawhney case Q37. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language? (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (b) A Legislation made by the Parliament (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India (d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India Q38. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for

MockTime.com Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are done by (a) Election Commission (b) Delimitation Commission (c) Planning Commission (d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation Commission Q39. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India? (a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries (b) To visit the monuments of national importance (c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so (d) To know more and more about the religions of India Q40. The functions of the committee on estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to 1. report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected. 2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. 3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. 4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Q41. Consider the following statements 1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental Right in India. 2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q42. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of

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(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (b) Ministry of Defence (c) Ministry of External Affairs (d) None of the above Q43. Consider the following statements: 1.National Commission for Protection of Child Rights was set up in the year 1997 2.The child is defined as any one between the age of 6 and 18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q44. The 73rd Amendment, dealing with Panchayati Raj, added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution, which contains (a) 21 subjects for the economic and social development of villages (b) 27 subjects for the economic and social development of villages (c) 29 subjects for the economic and social development of villages (d) 40 subjects for the economic and social development of villages Q45. What does water gas comprise of? (a) Carbon monoxide ana hydrogen (b) Carbon dioxide and hvdrogen (c) Carbon monoxide and methane (d) Carbon dioxide and methane Q46. Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the following plant parts? (a) Seeds (b) Fruits (c) Flower buds (d) Young leaves Q47. By using which one of the following techniques, is DNA fingerprinting done? (a) ELISA (b) RIA (c) Northern Blotting (d) Southern Blotting Q48. Bryophytes are photosynthetic but do not have vascular tissue and true roots. This feature enables them to resemble with which of the following? (a) Fungi (b) Algae (c) Pteridophytes

MockTime.com (d) Angiosperms Q49. Which one of the following is not a feature of eutrophic lakes? (a) Blooms are frequent in eutrophic lakes (b) Plant nutrient flux is high (c) Primary productivity is low (d) Dominated by blue green algae Q50. Which one among the following plants cannot be multiplied by cuttings? (a) Rose (b) Bryophyllum (c) Banana (d) Marigold Q51. Which one among the following animal tissues transport hormones and heat and maintains water balance? (a) Connective tissue (b) Muscular tissue (c) Blood (d) Nervous tissue Q52. Which one among the following group of items contain only biodegradable items? (a) Wood, Grass, Plastic (b) Wood, Grass, Leather (c) Fruit peels, Lime juice, China clay cup (d) Lime juice, Grass, Polystyrene cup Q53. The pH of human blood is normally around (a) 4.5-5.5 (b) 5.5-6.5 (c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.5-9.0 Q54. Two strands of DNA are held together by (a) hydrogen bonds (b) covalent bonds (c) electrostatic force (d) Van der Waals' forces Q55. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.Coronary artery supplies blood to heart muscles. 2. Pulmonary vein supplies blood to lungs. 3.Hepatic artery supplies blood to kidneys. 4.Renal vein supplies blood to kidneys. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l,2 and3 (b) 1 and4 only

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(c) 2 and4 (d) 1,3 and4 Q56. Which one of the following causes the chikungunia disease? (a) Bacteria (b) Helminthic worm (c) Protozoan (d) Virus Q57. Which one of the following statements regarding Monitorable Socio-Economic target of the 11th Five Year Plan, under the head Environment, is not correct? (a) Treat all urban waste water by 201 1-2012 to clear river waters (b) Increase energy efficiency by 20 percentage points by 2016-1017 (c) Attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-2012 (d) Increase forest and tree cover by 15 percentage points Q58. Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by (a) the Reserve Bank of India (b) the Planning Commission (c) the Finance Ministry (d) the Securities and Exchange Board of India Q59. The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of capital nature is termed as (a) revenue deficit (b) effective revenue deficit (c) fiscal deficit (d) primary deficit Q60. The value of money varies (a) directly with the, interest rate (b) directly with the price level (c) directly with the volume of employment (d) inversely with the price level Q61. World Bank in June 2014 released a study report on India's Power Sector titled 'More Power' to India: The Challenge of Electricity Distribution'. Which of the following is/are the key recommendation(s) of the report? 1. Ensure regulatory autonomy, effectiveness and accountability for utilities and regulators 2. Insulate utilities from State Governments to prevent interference with internal operations

MockTime.com 3. Scrap the Electricity Act 2003 in order to improve the revenue generation of the power distribution companies 1. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Q62. Consider the following recommendations: 1.RBI should target only on reducing inflation and use only a single instrument to keep inflation under control 2.Foreign investors should be allowed to invest in government bond market 3.Government should sell small underperforming public sector banks 4.Banks should be allowed to open branches and ATMs everywhere without restricti ons. Which of the above are among the recommendations of the Raghuram Rajan Committee on Financial Sector Reforms? (a) 1,2,3 and4 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Q63. According to the Aggregate Measurement of Support (AMS) formula of WTO domestic subsidy for agriculture (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 20 Q64. Out of the following which one contributes the minimum amount to the Governments tax revenue? (a) Central excise (b) Customs (c) Wealth tax (d) Income tax Q65. The National Agricultural Policy, 2000 emphasizes as a measure of land reform. (a) tenancy reform (b) cooperative farming (c) distribution of surplus land (d) consolidation of holdings Q66. Which of the following is not a reason for the crisis facing the Indian steel industry since long?

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(a) Domestic production not able to meet the demand (b) Dumping of steel by countries like China and Japan (c) World slump in the demand for steel (d) Delay in modernization of the Indian steel plants Q67. Which of the following statements with regard to Indian Agriculture is are true? 1.Although rice is the most important cereal being cultivated in India in terms of total production, wheat is fast catching up. 2.Green revolution did not make an impact on the production of pulses. (a) 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q68. The practice of monoculture is not favored in fanning because: (a) it leads to a glut in production (b) it causes a fall in prices of farm produce (c) It is susceptible to diseases (d) it is not suited for small holdings Q69. After 1857, which of the following announced, at a Darbar at Allahabad, the assumption of the Government of India by the Sovereign of Great Britain? (a) Lord Canning (b) Sir John Lawrence (c) Lord Mayc (d) Lord Northbrok

Q70. Whose philosophy is called the Advaita? (a) Ramanujacharya (b) Shankaracharya (c) Nagarjuna (d) Vasumitra Q71. Who among the following was elected as the President of All India Khilafat Conference met at Delhi in 1919? (a) Motilal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) M A Jinnah (d) Shaukat Ali

MockTime.com Q72. Assertion First War of independence broke out in India in 1857, soon after the departure of Lord Dalhousie from India. Reason (R) Lord Dalhousie‘s annexationist policy had caused great discontent. Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q73. Which one of the following commissions/ committees was appointed by the British Government to investigate into the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh? (a) Welby Commission (b) Hunter Committee (c) Simon Commission (d) Butler Committee Q74. Which one of the following was not a result of British colonial rule in India? (a) Ruin of Indian agriculture (b) Ruin of Indian industries (c) Ruin of Indian trade (d) Ruin of Indian feudalism Q75. Statement I: In North-Western India, the Civil Disobedience Movement took a mass character under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan. Statement II: The Nehru Report (1928) had argued that the ‗next immediate step‘ for India must be dominion status. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q76. What was the ‗privy purse‘ in the context of the history of modern India? (a) A purse given privately by one organisation to another (b) A purse given by the Government of India to dignitaries for services rendered (c) A grant given by the Government of India to the erstwhile Prince of India (d) A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of india to the Government of India Q77. Which one among the following was not a demand of the Prarthana Samaj? (a) Women education (b) Widow remarriage

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(c) Raising the age of marriage for boys and girls (d) Abolition of untouchability Q78. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river (a) Saraswati (b) Indus (c) Beas (d) Ravi Q79. Which among the following statements regarding the Gupta Dynasty is/are correct? 1. The Kumaramatyas were the most important of the and they were appointed directly by the king in the home provinces. 2. The village headmen lost importance and of the transactions began to be effected without their consent. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor Q80. British colonialism in India saw the emergence of new cities. Calcutta, now Kolkata, was one of the first cities. Which of the following villages were, amalgamated to form the city of Calcutta? (a) Midnapur, Chittagong, Burdwan (b) 24-Parganas, Kalikata, Thakurgaon (c) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur (d) Midnapur, Thakurgaon, Gobindapur Q81. Statement I: The Russian Revolution of 1917 inspired the Indian Working Class Movement. Statement II: The NonCooperation Movement (1921-22) saw the involvement of the Indian Working Class. (a) Both the statemtns are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q82. Which one of the following statements about ancient Indian Mahajanapadas is correct?

MockTime.com (a) All Mahajanapadas were oligarchies where power was exercised by a group of people (b) All Mahajanapadas were located in Eastern India (c) No army was maintained by the Mahajanapadas (d) Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen Mahajanapadas Q83. Marco Polo's trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in Europe on account of (a) his having discovered a safe route to India (b) his having established amicable relations with many Kings of India (c) his account of commercial, religious and social conditions in the East (d) All of the above Q84. Which of the following sets of newspapers reflected the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement? (a) Comrade and Hamdard (b) Comrade and Hindustan Times (c) Zamindar and Muslim Voice (d) Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal Q85. Which one of the following rivers flows into the Arabian Sea? (a) Indravati (b) Godavari (c) Cauvery (d) Narmada Q86. Which one of the following lakes in India has the highest water salinity? (a) Dal (b) Chilila (c) Wular (d) Sambhar Q87. Which one of the following is categorised as millet? (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Sorghum (d) Maize Q88. Consider the following statements 1.Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park of india. 2. It was one of the nine tiger reserves created at the launch of the Project Tiger in 1973.

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3. Initially it was named as 'Hailey National Park'. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q89. Which one of following projects of the NHPC (National Hydroelectric Power Corporation) has the largest power generation capacity (installed)? (a) Baira-Siul (b) Chamera-1 (c) Loktak (d) Salal Q90. On the above map of India, the shaded districts are those in which a particular tribal group constitutes more than 50% of the tribal population. What is that particular tribal group? (a) Gonds (b) Bhils (c) Nagas (d) Santhals Q91. During the Indian monsoon season (a) the Westerly jet stream alone exists in the Indian region (b) the Easterly jet stream alone exists in the Indian region (c) both Westerly and Easterly jet streams exist in the Indian region (d) both Westerly and Easterly jet streams disappear Q92. The term 'demographic gap' signifies the difference (a) in sex ratio (b) in age (c) in child/ woman ratio (d) between the birth and the death rate Q93. Which of the following best explain why the lower course of a river is sometimes chocked with sediments? 1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower course. 2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is low. 3. The delta sometimes develops in a river's lower course. 4. Much of the river water is drawn for irrigation in the lower course Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

MockTime.com (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Q94. The broken hills famous for zinc and lead are located in (a) Turkey (b) France (c) Germany (d) Australia Q95. In wildlife conservation which one among the following best defines an 'endemic species'? (a) When the critical number of a species declines in a forest due to parasitic attack (b) A species which is cosmopolitan and can be commonly found in biosphere (c) An endangered species which is found in a few restricted areas on the Earth (d) A species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else Q96. If news is broadcast from London at 10: 30 am, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45p E)? (a) 7: 30 am (b) 9: 00 am (c) 1: 30 pm (d) 12: 00 noon Q97. There are three distinct characters of temperature stratification of atmosphere around the Earth. Which one among the following is the correct arrangement of the layers (from the Earth's surface upwards)? (a) Thermosphere - Stratosphere Troposphere (b) Troposphere - Thermosphere Stratosphere (c) Troposphere - Stratosphere Thermosohere (d) Thermosphere- Troposphere Stratosphere Q98. Which among the following phenomenas can occur when very warm and humid air is rising over a mass of a very cold air? 1. Calm weather 2. Snowfall 3. Storms and cyclonic storms 4. Intense rain and hail Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2

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(b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Q99. Which of the following statements regarding recycling is/ are correct? 1. Recycling is just the collection and separation of the waste materials. 2. Recycling is the collection and separation of the materials from the waste stream and their subsequent processing to produce a marketable product. 3. Recycling leads to reduction of waste disposal cost. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q100. Which one among the following is the correct sequence of the rivers from North to South? (a) Damodar-Brahmani-MahanadiTungabhadra (b) Damodar-Mahanadi-BrahmaniTungabhadra (c) Brahmani-Tungabhadra-DamodarMahanadi (d) Damodar-Brahmani-TungabhadraMahanadi Q101. Chinook is a (a) cold wind in Europe (b) tropical desert storm in West Asia (c) warm wind in North-America (d) depression to South Africa Q102. Which of the following statements relating to Earthquakes is/are correct? 1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called epicenter. 2. The lines joining the places which were affected Earthquake at the same point of time are called homoseismal lines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q103. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Secretary Generals of the United Nations? (a) U Thant-K Waldheim-BB Ghali-K Annan (b) K Waldheim-U Thant-BB Ghali-K Annan

MockTime.com (c) U Thant-K Waldheim-K Annan-B B Ghali (d) K Waldheim-BB Ghali-U Thant-K Annan Q104. Match the following List l (Year) List II (UN's International Year) A. 2000 - 1. International Year of Ecotourism B. 2004 - 2. International Year of Microcredit C. 2005 - 3. International Year of Planet Earth D. 2008 - 4. International Year of Struggle against Slavery and its Abolition Codes A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 Q105. Which one of the following feature films is official nominee for Oscar, 2008 from India? (a) Rock on (b) Walu (c) Drona (d) Tare Jameen Par Q106. What is the common first digit of the number of the Superfast and Shatabdi trains regardless of zones presently running in India? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Q107. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan has been jointly awarded the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his contributions in (a) identifying the molecular ruler in ribosomal assembly which ensures error-free synthesis of protein in cells (b) synthesising a group of life-saving antibiotics (c) the work on green fluorescent protein of jellyfish (d) successfully crystallising the large subunits of ribosome in cells Q108. Consider the following statements about the Queen's Baton Relay 1. The helix shape of the Baton for the 2010 Commonwealth Games, created out of aluminium, is coated with a graded and layered soil pattern in black, yellow and red to represent the diversity of Commonwealth nations.

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2. This relay traditionally begins with a commencement ceremony at Buckingham Palace, London, during which, the Queen entrusts the Baton containing her message to the athletes to the relay for the 1998 Games in Kuala Lumpur. Malaysin was the first to travel to other nations of the Commonwealth. The first honorary relay rummer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q109. An underwater meeting held recently has drawn attention world over. The meeting was held by (a) some Somali pirates to make a new strategy for capturing ships for ransom (b) some environmental scientists for promoting awareness for saving water (c) some environmental activists for promoting awareness against air pollution (d) the Cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of rising sea level for the country Q110. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act? (a) It gives army officers acting under the Act legal immunity for their action (b) The Act confers armed forces special powers in operations against the Naxals (c) There has been widespread agitation against the Act (d) Justice (Retd.) BP Jeevan Reddy Committee was constituted to review the Act Q111. Eco-Mark is given to an Indian product which is (a) rich in protein (b) environment friendly (c) economically viable (d) pure and unadulterated Q112. Consider the following statements about Euthanasia [2011-II] 1. It refers to the practice of ending the life in a manner which relieves pain and suffering. 2. In the case involving Aruna Shanbaug, the Supreme Court of India has suggested that passive Euthanasia be legalised through the Supreme Court monitored mechanism only. 3. Active voluntary Euthanasia is legal in Belgium, Luxembourg and the Netherlands.

MockTime.com Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 2 Q113. In the year 2011, a missile named 'PRHAR', developed by DRDO was test fired. This is a (a) short-range surface to air missile (b) long-range surface to air missile (c) short-range surface to surface missile (d) long-range surface to surface missile Q114. In February 2011, which among the followingcountries has elected Mr Thein Sein, a military general turned civilian leader as its first President? (a) Malaysia (b) Costa Rica (c) Thailand (d) Myanmar Q115. Consider the following statements 1. Mahesh Bhupathi and Sania Mirza won the French Open Mixed Doubles Title in the year 2012. 2. This is their first Grand Slam title together. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q116. The Rohingya are the minorities of (a) South Africa (b) Canada (c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan Q117. 'Global Dimming' means (a) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere (b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots (c) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the Earth surface (d) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar regions Q118. Who among the following was not associated with the art of painting? (a) Abanindranath Tagore (b) Abdur Rahman Chaghatai (c) Nandlal Bose

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(d) Satish Chandra Mukherjee Q119. 1. Match the following List-I List-ll (Author) (Concept/Book) A. Hobbes - 1. Natural Law B. Rousseau - 2. 'Might is Right' C. Locke - 3. Discourse on Inequality D. Adam Smith - 4. The Wealth of Nations Codes A BC D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 Q120. Stepwell Rani-ki-Vav was approved as a World Heritage Site by the UNESCO recently. It is located at (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. a 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. c 81. a 82. d 83. d 84. d 85. d 86. d 87. c 88. b 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. d 95. d 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. c 100. c 101. c 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. c 107. d 108. b 109. d 110. b 111. b 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. c 117. c 118. d 119. b 120. b 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. German silver is an alloy of copper (2550% ), zinc (25-35%) and nickel (10-35%). It is used in utensils and resistance wire. 6. Butter is an example of a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in a solid i.e., gel. 7. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is a reddish brown gas. It has pungent smell and considered as air pollutant. In the presence of sunlight hydrocarbons and oxides of Nitrogen react to form ozone and PAN (peroxy Acetyl Ni trate). Smog is formed in traffic congested cities. Hytrocarbon + Nitrogen oxides Sunlight ¾¾¾® + O PAN+aldehyde3 8. SO2 can act as an oxidising agent as well as a reducing agent. It oxidises H2 S to S2H2

MockTime.com S + SO2 ¾¾®2H2O + S It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate Fe2 (SO4)3 + SO2 +2H2O ¾¾®2FeSO4 +2H2 SO4 9. Water has a high specific heat. 10. Acetylene is the nontoxic gases that help in formation of enzymes which riper fruit. Ripening is a process in fruits causes them to become more palatable. 11. 12. Oxygen is supporter of combustion. Though it is not combustible. Combustion is an oxidation process and this cannot occur without the presence of oxygen. 13. Frying an egg involves a chemical change. The heat in the frying process gives energy to the egg's molecules and brings about a permanent change in the substance. 14. 15. 16. 17. The given situation can be shown as A N B 30° 30° O i r By law of reflection, angle of incidence i is equal to angle of reflection r Total deviation of ray = 30° + 30° = 60° 18. Liquid rises in capillary tube due to capillary action. 19. Copper is a good conductor of both heat an electricity due to this it is used in all such appliance where quick heat transfer is required. 20. Pressure exerted by the fluid column depends on height (h), density r and acceleration due to gravity (g). P = hrg i.e. independent of area of cross-section of the vessel. 21. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and brought in contact, then the total charge on the two spheres is conserved. This is the law of conservation of charge. 22. We know from Newton‘s second law of motion ext dP F dt = when dt is more Fext will be less. The greater the rate of change of momentum, the greater is the force and vice versa. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Schedule X was added by 52nd amendment in 1985. It contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds of defection. Schedule Vlll contains List of 22 languages of India recognized by Constitution. Schedule l

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deals with the List of States & Union Territories. Schedule X Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways, and industries. Added by Ist amendment in 1951.Laws underSchedule IXare beyond the purview of judicial review even though they violate fundamental rights enshrined under part III of the Constitution. 31. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily in 2005 for preparing a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administrative system. Article 310 -Tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a State Article 311 -Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. 32. According to Article 53 (b) of the Indian Constitution the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law. 33. Convention on the nationality of married women has been signed by India but not yet ratified. 34. The core of political democracy is based on Universal adult Franchise. pertaining to civil matters in India. 35. Lord Ripon's plan for local Self government in India isas follows: 1. The subdivision, not the district, should be the maximum area served by one committee or local board with primary boards under it serving very small areas, so that each member of it might possess knowledge of and interest in its affairs. 2. The local boards should consist of a large majority of elected non-official members, and theyshould be presided over by a non-official member. 36. S. R. Bommai v. Union of Indiawas a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India regarding provisions of Article 356 of the Constitution of India and related issues. This case had huge impact on Centre-State Relations. The misuse of Article 356 was stopped after this judgment.Article 356 deals with imposition of President's Rule over a State of India. 37. Article 348 of Indian Constitution mentions the language to be used in Supreme Court and the High Courts. According to the article 348, the language of all proceedings in the Supreme court and in every high court shall be English. 38. Delimitation commission of India is a Commission established by Government of

MockTime.com India under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. The main task of the commission is to redraw the boundaries of the various assemblyand Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census. The representation from each state is not changed during this exercise. However, the number of SC and ST seats in a state ischanged in accordance with the census. 39. One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so." 40. The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports of the Comptroller & Auditor General on public undertakings. 41. With the enactment of the 97th amendment to the Constitution of India and its inclusion in Part IX of the Constitution, formation of cooperative societies has become one of the fundamental rights of an Indian citizen. Cooperative societies have thus come under the ambit of The Right to Information Act. Cooperative societies normally include cooperative banks, credit societies, sugar factories, distilleries, handloom-power loom factories, distilleries, milk producing societies, water supply societies etc. 42. Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of Ministry of External Affairs. 43. 44. 45. Water gas is a synthetic gas, having CO2 and H2. The gas is produced by passing steam over a red hot hydrocarbon fuel as coke. 46. Cloves are the flower buds of a tree in the family Myrtaceae. The tree is evergreen growing, contains large leaves and flowers grouped in terminal clusters. 47. DNA fingerprinting includes the extraction and identification of the base pair pattern of an individual‘s DN A. The identification process of specific DNA sequences is carried out by Southern blotting. 48. Bryophytes do not have vascular bundles (xylem & phloem) and roots so they show similarity with algae.

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49. Eutrophication is the movement of trophic status of aquatic body (lake, pond) towards the direction of increasing biomass by adding natural or artificial substances. So, its primary productivity is clearly high. 50. The banana develops from stem. The aerial parts of banana exhibit only leaves. Therefore, banana can‘t be multiplied by cuttings. 51. Blood is a fluid connective tissue. It carries harmones from endocrine glands to target organs. It carries heat and set homeostasis. It also aids in osmoregulation by carrying fluid to the kidney and skin, et c. 52. All the three items are organic matter and produced by living organisms thus are biodegradable wood is obtained from trees and leather is obtained from the hides of animals. Glass is acquired naturally or by melting silicates. 53. In chemistry, pH measures the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution. pH is normally measured in a range of0-14.pH value of some common material Material pH value 1.Sea water8.4 2. Human blood7.4 3.Milk6.4 4.Human urine6.0 5. Alcohol2.8 54. Two strand of DNA are held together by hydr ogen - bond formed between the bases of two strand. Adenine pairs with Thymins by two Hydrogen-bond and Guanine pairs with cytosine by three Hydrogen-bond. 55. The coronary arteries deliver blood to the heart muscle, providing a continuous supply of oxygen and nutrients needed for it to stay healthy and function normally. The pulmonary veins receive oxygenated blood from the lungs and drain into the left atrium of the heart.The Hepatic artery supplies oxygen-rich blood to the liver, pylorus, pancreas, and duodenum. The renal arteries carry a large portion of total blood flow to the kidneys. 56. Chickungunia is caused by chickenguniya virus which is an insect borne virus of genus Alphavirus. Symptoms show high fever, maculopapular rash, headache, et c. 57. 58. The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under Ministry of Finance is the nodal agency of the Union Government to formulate

MockTime.com and monitor country's economic policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic and international aspects of economic management. 59. Effective Revenue Deficit is basically revenue deficit excluding expenditure on capital generation form grants from the Centre to the states. It signifies the amount of capital receipts that are being used for actual consumption expenditure of the Government. It is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12. It has now become a new fiscal parameter. 60. The variation in the value of money is always accompanied by opposite variation in the price of commodities and services. In brief, the value of money varies inversely with the price level. It is reciprocal of price level. Vm =1/p (where Vm denotes value of money and p stands for price level). 61. This report reviews the evolution of the Indian power sector since the landmark Electricity Act of 2003, with a focus on distribution as key to the performance and viability of the sector. While all three segments of the power sector (generation, transmission, and distribution) are important revenues originate with the customer at distribution, so subpar performance there hurts the entire value chain. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Shankaracharya philosophy is called Advaita. The Advaita Vedanta focuses on the basic concepts as Brahman, atman, vidya (knowledge) , avidya (ignorance) , maya, karma and moksha. 71. Gandhiji was elected President of the All India Khilafat Conference which met at Delhi on November 23, 1919. They decided to withdraw all cooperation from the government if their demands were not met. 72. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie. The states annexed by the application of this doctrine of lapse were Satara, Jaitpur and Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi and Nagpur.Due to this annexation policy discontent simmered among many sections of Indian society and the largely indigenous armed forces; these

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rallied behind the deposed dynasties during the Indian rebellion of 1857 also known as the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857. 73. On 13 April 1919, a crowd of nonviolentprotesters, along with Baishakhi pilgrims, had gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh garden in Amritsar, Punjab to protest against the arrest of two nationalist leaders, Dr. Satyapal, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew, On the orders of Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer, the army fired on the crowd for ten minutes, there were 370 dead and 1200 wounded. 74. Ruin of Indian Feudalism was not a result of British colonial rule in India. 75. The Civil Disobedience Movement was formed in the year 1930 and was one of the most important phases in the Indian National Movement. The main ideology behind the Civil Disobedience Movement was to defy the laws made by the British. The British government was pressurized by the Indian National Congress to accept the Nehru Report (1928) as it is. The Calcutta Session of the INC held in 1928 warned the British government that it would start a Civil Disobedience Movement if India was not granted the dominion status. 2nd March 1930 is remembered as one of the important days in Indian history as the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched on that day. The launch triggered off with a Dandi Salt March where the British Salt was broken. 76. Privy Purse in India was a payment that was made to the royal families of the formerprincely states of India. The Privy Purse was created as part of the agreements made by them to merge with Union of India in the year 1947. 77. Prarthana Samaj was founded by M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar in 1867 with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. The main reformers were the intellectuals who advocate reforms of the social system of the Hindus. He never demanded abolition of untouchability. 78. The site of Harappa was located on the banks of river Ravi. 79. The village headman became more important in Gupta period and no land transaction could be effected without the headman's consent. 80. 81. Both the statements are true and statement ll is correct explanation of statement l. The Russian revolution inspired

MockTime.com the involvement of Indian working class in the Non Cooperation movement. 82. According to Angunttara Nikaya(Budhist text) and Bhagavati sutra (jain text) there were 16 mahajanapadas in ancient India. 83. 84. Educated muslims were the editors of Comrade, Hamdard,Zamindar and Al Hilal. Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar launched the Urdu weekly Hamdard and in English The Comrade in 1911. The founding editor of this newspaper was Zafar Ali Khan, a poet, intellectual, writer, Muslim nationalist and supporter of All India Muslim League's Pakistan Movement. The Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. 85. Narmada flows into the Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea). 86. Sambhar lake in Rajasthan is the largest salt water lake in India. 87. Sorghum is a genus of plants in the grass family. One species is grown for grain and many of which are used as fodder plants. Millets are a group of highly variable small seeded grasses, widely grown around the world as cereal crops or grains for fodder and human food. Thus, Sorghum is categorized as millet. 88. All statements are correct. 89. The Chamera Hydroelectric project is located at the Chamba district in the state of Himachal Pradesh. The Chamera-I generates 540 MW (3x180 MW) of electricity. 90. Santhals are the largest tribal group in India who lives mainly in Assam, odisha, Bihar, West Bengal and Jharkhand. 91. Tropical easterly jet stream occurs near the tropopause over Southeast Asia, India and Africa during summer. This jet is closely connected to the Indian and African summer monsoons. The existence of this jet implies that there is a deep layer of warm air to the north of the jet and colder air to the south over the Indian Ocean. This warm air is of course associated with the maximum heating taking place over India in summer, while the colder air is over the ocean. The difference in heating and cooling and the ensuing pressure gradient is what drives this jet. 92. Demographic gap is the difference between birth rate and death rate that develops when a country undergoes demographic transition. 93. The lower course of a river is sometimes chocked with sediments because the valley of

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a river is widest in its lower course, the velocity of a river in its lower course is low and the delta sometimes develops in a river's lower course. 94. Broken Hills are located in New South Wales, Australia. It is a mining city. 95. An endemic species is one whose habitat is restricted to a particular area. The term could refer to an animal, a plant, a fungus, or even a microorganism. Some of the endemic species in India are Greyheaded Bulbul, Malabar Lark, Nilgiri Flycatcher and Grey Jungle fowl etc. 96. Baghdad is 3 hours away from London. That is why news is broadcast from London at 10:30 am and it is heard at Baghdad at 1:30 pm.Greenwich Mean Time is at 0 degree longitude and Baghdad is at 45 degree east. 97. Troposphere: This is the lowest atmospheric layer and is about seven miles (11 km) thick. Most clouds and weather are found in the troposphere. Stratosphere: The stratosphere is found from about 7 to 30 miles (11-48 kilometres) above the Earth's surface. In this region of the atmosphere is the ozone layer found. Mesosphere: The mesosphere is above the stratosphere. Here the atmosphere is very rarefied, that is, thin, and the temperature is decreasing with altitude. Thermosphere: The thermosphere starts at about 55 kilometres. The temperature is quite hot. Exosphere: The exosphere is the region beyond the thermosphere. Ionosphere: The ionosphere overlaps the other atmospheric layers, from above the Earth. The air is ionized by the Sun's ultraviolet light. 98. Calm weather and intense rain and hail can occur when very warm and humid air rises over a mass of a very cold air. 99. Recycling is the practice of collection and separation of the materials from the waste stream and their subsequent processing to produce a marketable product whichwould otherwise be discarded as waste. It leads to reduction of waste disposal cost. 100. The Narmada River travels a distance of 1,312 km before it falls into Gulf of Cambay in the Arabian Sea near Bharuch in Gujarat. The first 1,079 km of its run is in Madhya Pradesh. In the next length of 35 km, the river forms the boundary between the States of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Again, in the next length of 39 km, it forms the boundarybetween Maharashtra and Gujarat.

MockTime.com 101. Chinook is a warm, dry, gusty, westerly wind that blows down the Rocky Mountains in North America. 102. Hypocenter - The point of origin of an earthquake. Homoseismal Lines- The lines joining the places which experience the earthquake tremors at the same time called Homoseismal Lines. 103. U Thant- 30 November 1961 -31 December 1971 Kurt Waldheim- 1 January 1972 -31 December 1981 Boutros BoutrosGhali- 1 January 1992 -31 December 1996 KofiAnnan- 1 January 1997 -31 December 2006 104. 2000 - International Year of Ecotourism 2004 - International Year of Struggle against Slavery and its Abolition 2005- International Year of Microcredit 2008- International Year of Planet Earth 105. 106. '2' is for superfast, Shatabdi, Jan Shatabdi, and some other classes of trains regardless of zones. For these, the next digit is usually the zone code. 107. Sir Venkatraman "Venki" Ramakrishnan FRS is an Indian-born American and British structural biologist, best known for his pioneering work on the ribosome. In 2009 he shared the Nobel Prize in Chemistry with Thomas A. Steitz and Ada E. Yonath, for studies of the structure and function of the ribosome. 108. 109. The government of the Maldives has held a cabinet meeting underwater to highlight the threat of global warming to the low-lying Indian Ocean nation. President Mohamed Nasheed and his cabinet signed a document calling for global cuts in carbon emissions. 110. The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) is an Act of the Parliament of India which was passed on 11 September 1958. It is an Act to enable certain special powers to be conferred upon members of the armed forces in disturbed areas in the States of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Tripura and the Union Territories of Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. It is not associated with operations against the Naxals. 111. Eco-Mark is an eco-labelling scheme which was constituted by the Government of India in 1991 for easy identification of environment-friendly products.

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112. Euthanasia is the practice of intentionally ending a life in order to relieve pain and suffering. On 24 January 2011 the Supreme Court of India responded to the plea for euthanasia filed by Aruna's friend, journalist Pinki Virani, by setting up a medical panel to examine her. The court rejected the petition on 7 March 2011. However, in its landmark opinion, it allowed passive euthanasia in India. 113. Prahaar is a solid-fuel rocket surface-tosurface guided short-range tactical ballistic missile developed by DRDO of India. 114. Thein Sein was elected the president of Myanmar in 2011. 115. In mixed doubles, Sania Mirza picked up her first Grand Slam title at the 2009 Australian Open. Partnering with Mahesh Bhupathi, they beat Nathalie Dechy & Andy Ram 6-3, 6-1 in the final. 116. The Rohingya people are Indo-Aryan peoples from the Rakhine State, Burma, who speak the Rohingya language. They are a distinct, Muslim ethnic group mainly living in Myanmar, also live in Bangladesh, Saudi Arabia and Pakistan. In Myanmar, they are subjected to forced labour, have no land rights, and are heavily restricted. 117. Measurements from the 1960s to the early 1990s, backed up by a wide range of data and a number of independent studies showed, there were substantial declines in the amount of the sun's energy reaching the Earth's surface. This reduction is known as "global dimming". The gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the Earth's surface was observed for several decades after the start of systematic measurements in the 1950s. 118. Satish Chandra Mukherjee was known for establishing a system of national education in India, along with Sri Aurobindo. 119. Hobbes- Might is Right RousseauDiscourse on Inequality Locke- Natural Law Adam Smith- The wealth of Nations 120. Rani ki Vav stepwell is situated in the town of Patan in Gujarat. It was added to the list of UNESCO's World Heritage Sites on 22 June 2014. It was constructed during the rule of the Solanki dynasty.

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CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources, the number of extinction of species documented between 1500 and 2009, have been : (a) 754 (b) 875 (c) 917 (d) 679 Q2. The greatest threat to the worlds coral reef systems emanates from: (a) UV light band (b) Starvation caused by decline in zooplankton (c) Cyanide fishing (d) More frequent coral bleaching Q3. Which of the following statements are true? 1.Cambrian explosion precedes Phanerozoic Eon. 2.Cambrian explosion is also called Cambrian radiation 3.Cambrian explosion was marked by rapid appearance of major phyla 4.A single landmass known as Pangaea was formed following Cambrian explosion. (a) 1,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 1,2, 3 (d) 2,3,4 Q4. The Red List of Threatened Plants and Animals includes (a)All extant species (b) Critically endangered species. (c)Endangered species (d)Vulnerable species The correct response is (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) b)2, 3, 4 (c) 1,2,4 (d) 1,2, 3, 4 Q5. The tracking of people by trained dogs is based on the recognisation of which of the following compounds in the sweat from feet? (a) Carboxylic acids

(b) Uric acid (c) Sugar (d) Salt Q6. Which one of the following is the softest? (a) Sodium (b) Aluminium (c) Iron (d) Copper Q7. Which one of the following petroleum refinary products has the lowest boiling point? (a) Kerosene (b) Diesel (c) Gasoline (d) Lubricating oil Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the properties and uses of glass wool. I. Glass wool has tensile strength greater than steel. II. Glass wool is fire proof. III. Glass wool has high electrical conductivity and absorbs moisture. IV. Glass wool is used to prepare fibre glass. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (c) II and IV (d) I, III and IV Q9. A close bottle containing water at room temperature was taken to the Moon and then the lid is opened. The water will (a) freeze (b) boil (c) decompose into oxygen and hydrogen (d) not change at all Q10. Vermicompost is an/a (a) inorganic fertilizer (b) toxic substance (c) organic bio fertilizer (d) synthetic fertilizer Q11. Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood? (a) Methane (b) Nitrogen dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

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Q12. Iron sheet kept in moist air covered with rust. Rust is (a) an element (b) a compound (c) a mixture of iron and dust (d) a mixture of iron, oxygen and water Q13. Which of the following is not correct about Baking Soda? (a) It is used in soda acid fire extinguisher (b) It is added for faster cooking. (c) It is a corrosive base (d) It neutralizes excess acid in the stomach Q14. Catenation is the process of (a) formation of cations (b) deposition of cations (c) formation of long chains of identical atoms (d) formation of covalent bonds Q15. Cocaine is isolated from (a) opium (b) cocoa (c) cumin (d) pepper Q16. Portland cement is primarily made from 1.limestone. 2.certain clay minerals. 3.gypsum. 4.silica.The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1,2, 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 3 only Q17. What would be the best choice for window material to keep the outside heat away? (a) Single-pane glass (b) Double-pane glass without a gap in between (c) Double-pane glass with water filled in between (d) Double-pane glass with air in between Q18. Hair of a shaving brush cling together when the brush is removed from water due to (a) viscosity (b) surface tension (c) friction (d) elasticity Q19. Half portion of a rectangular piece of ice is wrapped with a white piece of cloth while the other half with a black one. In this

MockTime.com context, which one among the following statements is correct? (a) Ice melts more easily under black wrap (b) Ice melts more easily under white wrap (c) No ice melts at all under the black wrap (d) No ice melts at all under the white wrap

Q20. In SONAR, we use (a) ultrasonic waves (b) infrasonic waves (c) radio waves (d) audible sound waves Q21. The gas used in a refrigerator is (a) cooled down on flowing (b) heated up on flowing (c) cooled down when compressed (d) cooled down when expanded Q22. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single layre of cloth with double the thickness. Why? (a) Because of the air encapsulated between two layers (b) Since effective thickness of two layers is more (c) Fabric of the cloth plays the role (d) Weaving of the cloth plays the role Q23. In respect of the difference of the gravitational force from electric and magnetic forces, which one of the following statements is true? (a) Gravitational force is stronger than the other two. (b) Gravitational force is attractive only, whereas the electric and the magnetic forces are attractive as well as repulsive. (c) Gravitational force has a very short range. (d) Gravitational force is a long range force, while the other two are short range forces. Q24. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R): Assertion (A) : When heat is supplied continuously to a substance, its temperature does not rise continuously. Reason (R): During change of state, the temperature of a substance remains constant. In the context of the above two

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statements, which one of the following is correct ? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Q25. In a stable nucleus the electrostatic force between protons (a) Is equal to the nuclear force between them (b) Is stronger than the nuclear force (c) Is weaker than the nuclear force (d) Does not exist Q26. If the density of ice is 0.9 gem-3 and that of sea water is 1.1. gem-3, what portion of an iceberg would be visible above the surface of water? (a) 2/11 (b) 2/9 (c) 1/11 (d) 9/11 Q27. Which one of the following scholars suggested the earth‘s origin from gases and dust particles? (a) James Jeans (b) H. Alfven (c) F. Hoyle (d) O. Schmidt Q28. 18 carat gold is: (a) 50% gold and 50% impurity (b) 75% gold and 25% impurity (c) 100% gold (d) 60% gold and 40% impurity Q29. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of India? (a) Devi Lal (b) GL Nanda (c) LK Advani (d) YB Chavan Q30. Financial distribution between the Union and the State takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following? (a) The National Development Council (b) The Inter-State Council (c) The Planning Commission (d) The Finance Commission

MockTime.com Q31. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched Subject List (a) Stock Exchanges The State List (b) Forest The Concurrent List (c) Insurance The Union List (d) Marriage and Divorce The Concurrent List Q32. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy? (a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts (b) Directive Principles have a political sanction (c) Directive Principles are declaration of objective for State Legislation (d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians Q33. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of the (a) composition of the National Devel opment Council (b) structure of the Planning Commission of India (c) functions of the State Finance Commission (d) functions of the Kaveri Water Authority Q34. DIRECTIONS : The following questions are based on the following passage. A government in a democratic country has to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women), then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only

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those particular new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of democracy. W hich one of the following statements regarding judiciary in India is not correct? (a) District Courts in India are presided over by a Judge (b) The District and Session Judge is the principal court of civil jurisdiction (c) The Munsiff's Court has both civil and criminal jurisdiction (d) The District and Session Judge has the power to impose capital punishment Q35. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity? 1. Common All India Service 2. Single integrated judiciary Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q36. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Q37. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the constitution itself. 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory

MockTime.com Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q38. Which one among the following statements about the functioning of political parties in a democracy is not correct? (a) Political parties give political education to the people (b) Political parties serve as a link between the government and the people (c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the maximum number of their candidates elected (d) None of the above Q39. The Government of India Act, 1919 1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre. 2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive. 3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Q40. Political theory 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions. 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice. 3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law, separation of power and judicial review. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q41. Match the following List I (Person) List II (Role in making of the Constitution of India) A. Rajendra Prasad -1. Member. Drafting Committee B. T T Krishanamachari -2. Chairman.Constituent Assembly C. H C Mukherjee -3. Chairman. Drafting Committee

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D. B R Ambedkar - 4. Vice Chairman. Constituent Assembly Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 Q42. Parliamentry Democracy is one where 1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place 2. the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives. 3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only Q43. The children‘s population (below 18 years) is as high as 41% of the total population in India. The Integrated Child Development Programme does not seek to fulfill one of the following for the children: (a) nutritional food (b) health care (c) over-all child development (d) primary education Q44. The 73rd Amendment provided for a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats. This Commission is appointed by (a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Union Finance Minister (d) The Comptroller and Auditor General

MockTime.com Q47. Which chamber of human heart pumps fully oxygenated blood to aorta and thence to the body? (a) Right auricle (b) Left auricle (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle Q48. Which one of the following is a freeliving bacterium that helps in nitrogen fixation in soil? (a) Azotobacter (b) Anabaena (c) Azolla (d) Nostoc Q49. Quinine is a drug used in the treatment of malaria. From which part of the plant it is obtained? (a) Roots (b) Stem (c) Bark (d) Leaves Q50. Consider the following statements 1.A person with myopia can see distant objects distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly. 2. A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly. 3.A person with presbyopia can see nearby objects without corrective glasses. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a) 1,2 and3 (b) 1 and2 (c) 1 and3 (d) Only3

Q45. Which one of the following causes the chikungunia disease? (a) Bacteria (b) Helminthic worm (c) Protozoan (d) Virus

Q51. Which among the following is the correct increasing order of pH found in human body? (a) Gastric juice, saliva, blood (b) Blood, saliva, gastric juice (c) Saliva, blood, gastric juice (d) Gastric juice, blood, saliva

Q46. Which one among the following kinds of organisms resides in the roots of pulse plants to do nitrogen fixation? (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Protozoa (d) Virus

Q52. When we eat something we like, our mouth waters. This is actually not water but fluid secreted from (a) nasal glands (b) oval epithelium (c) salivary glands (d) tongue

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Q53. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer generally from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease due to the effect of (a) solar radiation (b) ozone concentration (c) nitrogen oxide (d) particulate pollutant Q54. Which one of the following elements is present in green pigment of leaf? (a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorus (c) Iron (d) Calcium Q55. Which one of the following types of pesticides is convenient to control stored grain pests? (a) Systemic pesticides (b) Fumigants (c) Contact poisons (d) Stomach poisons Q56. Which one of the following vitamins is abundant in guava fruits? (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B12 (c) Vitamin-C (d) Vitamin-D Q57. By which one of the following years does the 11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele-density in India from the present 1.9% ? (a) 2009 (b) 2010 (c) 2011 (d) 2012 Q58. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. If a country is experiencing increase in its per capita GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing. 2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation its GDP must be decreasing. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q59. Which of the following institutions was/were asked by the Government of India

MockTime.com to provide official estimates of black (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India and abroad? 1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy. 2. National Council of Applied Economic Research. 3. National Institute of Financial Management. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q60. The effect of a government surplus upon the equilibrium level of NNP [Net National Product] is substantially the same as (a) an increase in investment (b) an increase in consumption (c) an increase in saving (d) a decrease in saving Q61. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) When total product: Marginal increases at an product increasing rate increases (b) When total product: Marginal increases at a product diminishing rate, declines (c) When total product: Marginal reaches its product maximum becomes zero (d) When total product: Marginal begins to decline product becomes positive Q62. Command Area Development Programme was launched to: (a) ensure that land is given to the tillers (b) ensure better utilization of irrigation potential (c) development of land under the Army‘s command (d) poverty alleviation in selected areas Q63. According to WTO for agricultural commodities which are not significantly imported, a minimum market access of % of consumption demand has to be given by developing countries. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5

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Q64. Which one of the following taxes is not shared by the central government with the states? (a) Union excise duties (b) Customs duty (c) Income tax (d) Estate duty Q65. The most significant economic consequence of the graying of the Indian population in the decades to come, will be (a) fall in the growth of population (b) reverse flow of wealth from children to parents (c) a decline in the demand for maternity facilities (d) the need for redesigning apartment buildings Q66. Which of the following is not a function of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)? (a) Supervising the working of the Stock Exchanges (b) Underwriting new capital issues (c) Regulating merchant banks and mutual funds (d) Promoting the development of a healthy capital market

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Q70. Who among the following was the founder of the Muslim League? (a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (b) Shaukat Ali (c) Nawab Salimullah (d) Aga Khan Q71. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Acharya JB Kriplani (c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash (d) K M Munshi Q72. Which one of the following statement about Brihadeswara temple at Tanjavur, is not correct? (a) The temple is a splendid example of Chola architecture (b) It was built by emperor Rajaraja (c) The temple is constructed of granite (d) The temple is a monument dedicated to Lord Vishnu

Q68. In India, monetization of the fiscal deficit is achieved through: (a) reducing public expenditure (b) printing new currency notes (c) increasing interest rates (d) borrowing by the government

Q73. Which one of the following statements related to the Boston Tea Party on December 16, 1773 during the American War of Independence is correct? (a) The revolutionaries stealthily entered into the ships and threw all the chests of tea into the water (b) The revolutionaries hosted a Tea Party in the honour of Charles Townshend, the British Chancellor of the Exchequer in order to place their grievances before him (c) It marked a celebration when Lord North, the successor of Townshend, repealed some of the duties imposed by Townshend (d) It was a protest against the Quebec Act

Q69. Arrange the following in correct chronological order 1. Third Carnatic War 2. First Burmese War 3. First Mysore War 4. Second Afghan War Codes: (a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Q74. Consider the following events in the history of British India 1. Santhal Rebellion 2. Indigo Revolt 3. Sanyasi and Fakir Rebellion 4. Birsa Munda Rebellion Which one of the following is a correct chronological sequence of the above events starting with the earliest? (a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3

Q67. Aggregate Measure of Support (AMS) in the context of WTO refers to: (a) the minimum support price guaranteed to the farmers (b) the quantum of subsidy given to the agricultural sector (c) the issue price of paddy and wheat (d) insurance cover for crops

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(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 Q75. Statement I: Gandhiji failed to realise that the Khilafat was an extra-territorial issue. Statement II: The cause of Khilafat was discredited by 1923, as Mustafa Kamal Pasha set-up a secular republican Government in Turkey. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q76. The Constituent Assembly of India was choosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946. With the withdrawal of the Muslim League from the Constituent Assembly, it turned out that majority of the assembly members were also members of the Congress. Under that circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly given a broader social basis? (a) By nominating independent members from various minority groups (b) By nominating independent members from various caste and religious groups (c) By nominating independent members of different castes, religious groups and women and also by taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large (d) By taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large Q77. The Name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with (a) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (b) Alipore Conspiracy Case (c) Kakori Conspiracy Case (d) Meerut Conspiracy Case Q78. The suppression of Indian language newspapers under the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was caused by the criticism of (a) lavish lifestyle of the English officials (b) ill-treatment given to Indigo workers by their English masters (c) inhuman approach of English officials towards the victims of the famine of 1876-77 (d) misuse of religious places of India by English officials Q79. Which one among the following is not a function of Mir Bakshi, the Head of the

MockTime.com Military Department as well as of the nobility under Mughal rule? (a) He made recommendations for appointment to Mansabs to the emperor (b) He collected reports of intelligence and information agencies of the empire and presented them to the emperor at the court (c) He was responsible for all incomes and expenditures and held control over Khalisa, Jagir and Inam lands (d) He was responsible for the security of foreign travellers on the highways of the empire Q80. Several socio-political organisations were formed in the 19th and 20th centuries in India, Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam founded in the year 1914 was (a) All India Muslim Ladies Conference (b) A radical wing of the All India Muslim League (c) All India Muslim Student‘s Conference (d) All India Islamic Conference Q81. Statement I: In India tribal movements of 19th century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws. Statement II: The Indian national movement resolved the problems faced by the tribals. (a) Both the statemtns are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q82. Consider the following statements 1. Battle of Buxar provided the key to the English to establish their rule in India. 2. The Treaty of Allahabad, concluded in 1765, enabled the British to establish their rule in Bengal. Which of the stattements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q83. Which of the statements given below about the Mughal rule in India is false?

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(a) Peasant communities were a united and homogeneous group (b) There was an abundance of food grain (c) The State encouraged these crops that brought in more revenue (d) Most regions produced two crops in a year Q84. Which of the following statements about the social reformer, Raja Rammohun Roy, is false? (a) Rammohun Roy belonged to the gentry class whose power had been diminished because of the imposition of the Permanent Settlement. (b) He studied both Vedantic Monism and Christian Unitarianism. (c) He translated the Upanishads into Bengali. (d) His first organization was the Atmiya Sabha, founded in Calcutta in 1815. Q85. Match the following List I List II A. State - 1. Igneous rock B. Lignite - 2. Metamorpric rock C. Bauxite - 3. Non-ferrous mineral D. Granite - 4. Sedimentary rock Codes A B C D (a) 1 3 3 2 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Q86. Match the following List I River List II Tributary A. Brahamaputra - 1. Musi B. Krishna - 2. Tawa C. Narmada - 3. Bhavani D. Cauveri - 4. Dikhow Codes A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4 Q87. Consider the following statements 1.National parks are a special category of protected areas of land and sea coasts where people are an integral part of the system. 2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation of particular species. 3. Biosphere reserves are connected with the habitat of a particular wild animal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2

MockTime.com (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q88. What is the name of the strait where 'Adams bridge' is situated? (a) Bering Strait (b) Cook Strait (c) Palk Strait (d) Taiwan Strait Q89. Deltas are common in India for the East-flowing river systems, whereas they are nearly absent on the West coast, because West-flowing rivers (a) are few (b) have lesser water volume and carry less run-off silt (c) originate in dry areas (d) originate largely in the Western Ghats and have short distance to cover to the sea Q90. Which one of the following is not associated with monsoon climate in India? (a) El Nino temporary warm currents (b) South-equatorial warm currents of Indian Ocean (c) Western disturbances (d) Cyclones of Bay of Bengal Q91. Which one among the following is not a Baltic nation? (a) Lativia (b) Slovakia (c) Lithuania (d) Estonia Q92. Most of the communication satellites today are placed in a geostationary orbit. In order to stay over the same spot on the Earth, a geostationary satellite has to be directly above the (a) Tropic of Cancer (b) Either North or South Pole (c) Equator (d) Tropic of Capricorn Q93. The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the production of (a) precious stones and building materials (b) iron ore and manganese (c) bauxite and mica (d) copper and uranium Q94. When we consider 15° meridian on a world map or globe and count them in an Eastward direction starting with Greenwich

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meridian (0°), we find that the time of this meridian is (a) same as Greenwich (b) 1 hour fast (c) 1 hour slow (d) 12 hours fast Q95. The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91°E and 92° E) at the Poles is (a) 0 km (b) 18 km (c) 25 km (d) 111 km Q96. Which one among the following sequences of water bodies, from lower to higher salinity concentration, is correct? (a) Gulf of California-Baltic Sea-Red SeaArctic sea (b) Baltic Sea-Arctic Sea-Gulf of CaliforniaRed Sea (c) Red Sea-Gulf of California-Arctic SeaBaltic Sea (d) Arctic Sea-Gulf of California-Baltic SeaRed Sea Q97. Consider the following diagram North Pole Horse Latitude A Polar High Pressure Belts South Pole In the diagram given above, what does A denote? (a) Doldrums (b) Trade winds (c) Westerlies (d) Easterlies Q98. Which one among the following is called terrestrial planet? (a) Mercury (b) Jupiter (c) saturn (d) Uranus Q99. Nearly 30% of the solar radiations return back to the space without contributing anything to the Earth's surface temperature. This amount of radiation is known as (a) Black body (b) tropopause (c) Earth's albedo (d) mesopause Q100. Which one among the following states does not form part of the Narmada basin? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Gujrat (c) Rajasthan

MockTime.com (d) Maharashtra Q101. Which one of the following dams is constructed across Krishna River? (a) Ukai Dam (b) Krishna Sagar Dam (c) Srisailam Dam (d) Mettur Dam Q102. A typical black hole is always specified by (a) a (curvature) singularity (b) a horizon (c) either a (curvature) singularity or a horizen (d) a charge Q103. Which one of the following is a programme that converts high level language to machine language? (a) Linker (b) Assembler (c) Interpreter (d) Compiler Q104. What does Fuwa, the official Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games, contain? (a) Four popular animals of China and the Olympic Flame (b) Five popular animals of China and the map of China (c) Five popular animals of China (d) Four popular animals of China and the world map Q105. Consider the following statements about environmental concerns in history 1. In the Indian Ocean region, early French and British scientists pondered over possible linkages of deforestation, the wholesale denuding of the native tree cover and the cycles of water replenishment. 2. In the USA, there were similar fears by the late 19th century. 3. There was hardly and environmental concerns in the past about wrider global impacts of the way resources were used. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 Q106. Consider the following statements about Noble Prize [2009-II]

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1. It is never awarded posthumously. 2. Nobel Prize in Economics is given since 1901. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q107. Which one of the following states has seen a series of strong public protests against the Armed Forces Special Powers Act in force in that state? (a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Jharkhand Q108. In the month of October 2009, the Indian Air Force in Mumbai airport forced a flight on North American Airlines Boeing 767 to land. Which of the following statements in this respect is/are correct? 1. It was forced to land, because the Indian Air Force was reported that there was a bomb planted in the plane. 2. The plane was travelling to Bangkok, Thailand from Fujiriah, United Arab Emirates. 3. The plane was carrying US troops. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these Q109. Which one of the following Indian company has recently acquired African mobile service operation in fifteen countries from Zain? (a) Bharti-Airtel (b) Tata Teleservices (c) Reliance Communications (d) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited Q110. Statement I India receives the highest share of FDI inflow from Mauritius. Statement II There is Double Taxation Avoidance agreement between India and Mauritius. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

MockTime.com (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q111. Why is Switzerland unable to join European Union (EU) till date (2010) despite its government's persistent effort to do so? (a) Few EU countries like France and Germany are opposed to Switzerland's joining the Union (b) The Swiss people continue to vote against joining the EU as they do not want to lose Switzerland's sovereignty (c) EU rejected Switzerland's application as Swiss Government did not agree to use Euro as currency (d) All of the above Q112. In the case of the nuclear disaster which of the following options for cooling the nuclear reactors may be adopted? 1. Pumping of water to the reactors. 2. Use of boric acid. 3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping them in a cooling pond. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q113. The year 2011 was the centenary year for which one among the following policymaking bodies of the Government of In dia in scientific research and development? (a) ISRO (b) ICAR (c) ICMR (d) CSIR Q114. Which among the following countries has recently decided to give grant of U$ 1 billon for reconstruction of Nalanda University? (a) USA (b) China (c) UK (d) Japan Q115. The year 2002 Code of Conduct related to territorial and maritime dispute in

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the South China sea was signed between China and (a) Philippines (b) Vietnam (c) United States of America (d) ASEAN Q116. During the last part of November 2012, there was a severe fire accident which took away the lives of more than hundred people in Bangladesh. The accident occurred inside a (a) textile factory (b) jute factory (c) polythene manufacturing factory (d) cement factory Q117. Which of the following statements about India-China relations is/are correct? 1. 'Look East' policy is a vital part of the relationship. 2. There is an active defence exchange programme. 3. Institutional mechanism to share international waters is in place. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 Q118. The Pulitzer Prize for fiction in the year 2013 has been announced for the book (a) 'The Orphan Master's Son' authored by Adam Johnson (b) 'What We Talk About When We Talk About Anne Frank' authored by Nathan Englander (c) 'The Snow Child' authored by Eowyn Ivey (d) None of the above Q119. Which of the following was the theme of World Environment Day 2014? (a) Green Economy. Does it include you? (b) Think. Eat. Save (c) Many Species. One Planet. One Future (d) Small Islands and Climate Change Q120. Seeking to revive historic ties, the Indian Air Force has gifted a vintage Dakota Aircraft from its museum to (September 2014) (a) the Pakistan Air Force (b) the Bangladesh Air Force (c) the Chinese Air Force (d) the Sri Lankan Air Force

MockTime.com 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. c 54. a 55. c 56. c 57. d 58. C 59. d 60. B 61. B 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. c 82. c 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. b 87. c 88. c 89. b 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. c 101. c 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. a 110. a 111. b 112. b 113. c 114. b 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. d 120. b 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. The tracking of people by trained dogs is based on the recognisation of carboxylic acid in the sweat from feet. 6. Alkali metals such as lithium, sodium and potassium are soft metals. These can be easily cut with a knife. 7. Product Boiling Point (°C) 8. Glass wool is an insulating material, obtained from fibre glass arranged into a texture similar to wool. 9. The water will freeze because on Moon the temperature is below the freezing point i.e., very low. 10. Vermicompost is the product or process of composting utilising various species of worms, usually red wigglers, white worms and earthworms to create a heterogeneous mixture of decomposing vegetables or food waste, bedding material and vernicast. Containing water soluble nutrients, vermicompost is an excellent, nutrient rich organic fertilizer and soil conditioner. 11. Carbon monoxide readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood. 12. Rust is an iron oxide formed by the redox reaction of iron and oxygen in the presence of water or air moisture22232 Fromair Hydrated iron oxide (rust)4Fe2O xH O2Fe O .xH O + + ¾¾® Hence rust is a compound. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. To keep the outside heat away, windows of doublepane glass with air in between is the

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best choice because air is the bad conductor of heat. 18. When brush is taken out, the water film is formed between the hairs and they contract due to surface tension. 19. Ice under black wrap will melt easily because dark colour (black) absorbs the most of light energy falling on it. 20. Sonar (sound navigation and ranging) is a technique that uses sound propagation to navigate (usually under water, as in submarine navigation), communicate with or detect objects on or under the surface of the water, such as the vessels as ultrasonic waves which is used having very high frequency > 20,000 Hz. 21. In a refrigerator gas is allowed to expanded suddenly (adiabatically) from high to low pressure. This cools it. 22. Two layers of a cloth are warmer because air trapped between the layers acts as thermal insulator restricting the heat transfer. 23. Gravitational force is attractive only whereas the electric and magnetic forces are attractive as well as repulsive. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves. 31. Stock Exchange is the subject of union list. 32. The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for creating a social order characterized by social, economic, and political justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as enunciated in the constitution's preamble. It does not promise equal income and free healthcare for all Indians. 33. Article 243(I) of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (73rd Amendment Act, 1992), and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

MockTime.com 34. District Munsiff Court (District Munsif Court) is the court of the lowest order handling matters 35. India is a Quasi-Federal country because the Constitution of India is federal in nature but unitary in spirit. It has common features of a federation such as written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, two governments, division of powers, bicameralism as well as unitary features like single Constitution, integrated judiciary and All-India Services etc. 36. Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution safeguard women and children and others against exploitation of various forms. Article 23 declares slave trade, prostitution and human trafficking a punishable offence. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines. 37. All the conditions given in the question are necessary for issuing writ of quo warranto. The conditions necessary for the issue of a writ of quo warranto are as follows: (i) The office must be public and it must be created by a statue or by the constitution itself. (ii) The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. (iii) There has been a contravention of the constitution on or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person to that office. 38. "Political parties give political education to the people" is not the function of political parties in a democracy. 39. This act made the central legislature bicameral. The first house which was central legislature with 145 members (out of whi ch 104 elected and 41 nominated) was called central Legislative Assembly and second with 60 members (out of which 33 elected and 27 nominated) was called Council of States.It Introduced Diarchy in the provincial executive. Federal system of Government was introduced in India by The Government of India Act 1935. 40. Political Theory deals with the study of political institutions as well as with theories of state, law, liberty, equality and representation. 41. The Constitution of India was drafted by the constituent assembly and it was set up under the cabinet Mission plan on 16 May 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then became the

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President of the Constituent Assembly. Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari was a member of drafting committee. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was the Vice-president of the Constituent Assembly of India for drafting the Constitution of India. Bhimrao Ambedkar was appointed Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee. 42. Popular participation is unmediated; the people are the government, there is no separate elite or rulingclass between the government and their people. This is an indirect and limited form of democracy where the people choose who shall make decisions on their behalf. In the responsible democracy, the government is responsible first to the parliament's lower house, which is more numerous, directly elected and thus more representative than the upper house. The people vote for their representative who speaks on behalf of their constituents. 43. 44. 45. Chickungunia is caused by chickenguniya virus which is an insect borne virus of genus Alphavirus. Symptoms show high fever, maculopapular rash, headache, et c. 46. Rhizobium (a kind of bacteria) lives in plant roots of pulse plant (legumes) to fix nitrogen. 47. The human heart possesses four chambers, two superior atria and two inferior ventricles. The atria are getting chambers and ventricles are providing chambers. Left ventricle pumps fully oxygenated blood to aorta then to the body. Right atrium gets deoxygenated blood from superior vena cava. 48. Azotobacter is a genus of usually motile and free living bacteria that builds thick walled cysts. They are able to fix nitrogen in soil. 49. Quinine is a natural white crystalline alkaloid. It has antipyretic (fever-reducing), antimalarial, analgesic, and antiinflammatory qualities. It is present in the bark of cinchona tree. 50. All the three statements are not correct. Myopia refers long-sightedness, hypermetropia to short-sightedness and presbyocia is a disorder in which the eye shows a progressively diminished ability to focus on near object with the passage of age. 51. The pH of gastric juice is not more than4.5 pH of saliva is6-7.4, whereas the pH of blood is equal to7.4

MockTime.com 52. Salivary glands secrete amylase enzyme (ptyalin) and water to moist the food and to digest starch. When we see, smell or eat something we like, the salivary glands are stimulated and secrete saliva in buccal cavity thus watering the mouth. 53. Due to lower atmospheric presure, N2 gets mixed with O2 to form such oxide which is inhaled by the passengers or crew. 54. Magnesium is found in green pigment of leaf. The green pigment is called chlorophyll molecule. Chlorophyll is chemically a tetrapyrole structure in which Mg++ exists in the centre. 55. In general, the contact insecticides that are approved for use are compounds of relatively low mammalian toxicity, which are considered to be non-hazardous when applied at prescribed dilution rates for the purposes indicated. 56. Vitamin-C is enough in guava fruits. Vitamin-C helps in strengthening of immunity, serves as an antioxidant and provides relief in hypertension too. 57. 58. GDP per capita is often used as an indicator of living standards. Notably on the rationale that all citizens would benefit from their country's increased economic production as it leads to an increase in consumption opportunities which in turn increases the standard of living. 59. The government had selected three think tanks in March 2011 in order to estimate the quantum of black money. These three think tanks are - National Institute of Financial Management (NIFM), National Council for Applied Economic Research (NCEAR) and National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP). 60. The effect of a government surplus upon the equilibrium level of NNP (Net National Product) is substantially the same as an increase in consumption. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. The All India Muslim League, a political organization was founded in 1906 by Aga Khan under the Nawab of Dhaka

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Salimullah.Its mainpurpose was to safeguard the political rights of Muslims in India. 71. The Constitution of India was drafted by the constituent assembly and it was set up under the cabinet Mission plan on 16 May 1946. The members of the constituent assembly were elected by the Provincial assemblies by method of single transferable vote system of proportional representations.Members of the committee:, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, K. M. Munshi,Acharya J.B kriplani. Lok Nayak Jai Prakash was not the member of the constituent assembly. 72. The Brihadeshwara temple, called the Big Temple, is dedicated to Lord Siva. It was built by the great Chola King Raja Raja 1 (985 1012 A.D) . It is an outstanding example of Chola architecture. Recognizing its unique architectural excellence, UNESCO has declared it a World Heritage Monument. 73. On the night of December 16, 1773, Samuel Adams and the Sons of Liberty boarded three ships in the Boston harbour and threw 342 chests of tea overboard. This resulted in the passage of the puniti ve Coercive Acts in 1774 and pushed the two sides closer to war. 74. Santhal Rebellion (January 3, 1856) was a native rebellion in present day Jharkhand in eastern India against both the British colonial authority and upper caste zamindari system by the Santalpeople. The Indigo revolt (or Nilbidroha) was a peasant movement and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the indigo planters that arose in Bengal in 1859. Sanyasi means Ascetics and Sadhus. In this rebellion, the Sanyasis or Fakirs including the Hindu and Muslim ascetics stood up against the oppressive tax collection post Bengal famine of 1770. Birsa was an Indian tribal freedom fighter and a folk hero, who belonged to the Munda tribe. (1875-1900) 75. The Government created commissions and commissions on one another with an undeclared motive of creating mutual apprehensions and mistrusts. It was the time when the top leaders including Gandhi were failed to understand the political implications of his extensions of support to the cause of Khilafat. Practically, the leaders of Khilafat needed support of Gandhiji only for a defined particular purpose. 76. For the first time in 1934,the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put

MockTime.com forward by M. N. Roy. Under the cabinet mission plan of 1946, elections were held for the first time for constituent Assembly. The Constitution of India was drafted by the constituent assembly and it was set up under the cabinet Mission plan on 16 May 1946. The members of the constituent assembly were elected by the Provincial assemblies by method of single transferable vote system of proportional representation. 77. Ram Prasad Bismil was the famous freedom fighter who was involved in the historic Kakori train robbery. He was born in 1897 at Shahjahanpur,Uttar Pradesh. On 9th August, 1925, Ram Prasad Bismil along with his fellow followers looted the money of the British government from the train while it was passing through Kakori, Lucknow. Except Chandrashekhar Azad, all other members of the group were arrested. Ram Prasad Bismil along with others was given capital punishment. This great freedom fighter of India was executed on 19th December, 1927. 78. The Vernacular Press Act in 1878 was passed by Lord Lytton and repealed by Lord Ripon.The suppression of vernacular newspapers was caused by the criticism of ill treatment given to indigo workers by their English masters. 79. Recommendation for appointment to mansabs to the Emperor is not a function of Mir Bakhshi. The duties of Mir Bakhshi includedThe recruitment of the army maintaining a list of mansabdars with their postings. Keeping a roster of the Palace guards. Preparing the rules as to grants of pay keeping up a list of officers paid in cash, and an abstract of the total paybills. The superintendence of the mustering for branding and verifying the troopers' horses and the orders subsidiary thereto. 80. It is founded in Aligarh in 1914. It claimed to represent the interests of all Muslim women.Besides working for the social and educational uplift of Muslimwomen the Anjuman's main contribution was to popularize a new style of burqa pattern on the Turkish model. 81. The Indian national movement was against the British rule in India.It resulted in our Independence from the Britishers but it did not resolve the tribal issues. 82. The Battle of Buxar was fought between British East India Company and the combined forces of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of

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Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor on 23rd October, 1764. Shah Alam II, signed the Treaty of Allahabad that secured Diwani Rights for the Company to collect and manage the revenues of almost 100,000,000 acres (400,000 km2) of real estate, which helped establish the English rule. 83. Peasant Communities were heterogeneous group on the basis of caste and other caste like distinctions. 84. 85. 1. Slate- Metamorphous Rock 2. Lignitesedimentary rock 3. Bauxite- Non ferrous mineral 4. Granite - Igneous rock 86. 1. Brahamaputra- Dikhow 2. KrishnaMusi 3. Narmada- Tawa 4. Cauveri- Bhavani 87. National Park an area of countryside, or occasionally sea or fresh water, protected by the state for the enjoyment of the general public or the preservation of wildlife. An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are brought to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. A biosphere reserve is an area of land or water that is protected by law in order to support the conservation of ecosystems, as well as the sustainability of mankind's impact on the environment. 88. Adam's Bridge is a chain of limestone shoals between Rameswaram Island (Tamil Nadu) and Mannar Island(Sri Lanka). The bridge is 30 kilometres long and separates the Gulf of Mannar from the Palk Strait. 89. Most of the Western flowing rivers travel lesser distance than eastern flowing rivers before getting into the sea. On way to Western coast through hard rocks and over higher gradient, they couldn't collect large amount of Slit and flow with very high speed compared to East flowing rivers. Eastern rivers flow through broken hills and mountain ranges. So, they are widened and flow with lesser velocity before entering into sea. So, they deposit sediments and silt before entering into sea and can form a Delta. 90. The South Equatorial Current is a significant Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oc ean current that flows eastto-west between the equator and about 20 degrees south. 91. Baltic Nations are those that have shorelines along the Baltic Sea. The group of countries presently referred Baltic States are Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. Slovakia is not a Baltic state.

MockTime.com 92. . A geostationary satellite is an earthorbiting satellite. It is placed at an altitude of approximately 35,800 kilometres directly over the equator that revolves in the same direction the earth rotates (west to east). 93. The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the production of precious stones and building materials. The system derives its name from the Vindhyan hills where its rocks are prominently exposed. It forms a dividing line between the Ganga Plain and the Deccan. The main rocks of the Vindhyan system are coarse, medium and fine textured sandstones, shales and limestones. The Vindhyan system of rocks bear out precious stones, ornamental stones, diamonds, building materials, and raw materials for cement, lime, glass and chemical industries 94. Time is advance towards the east as sun rises first in the east then in west. 95. The distance between two consecutive longitudes at the poles is 0 KM. A degree of longitude is widest at the equator at 69.172 miles (111.321) and gradually shrinks to zero at the poles. 96. The correct sequences of water bodies, from lower to higher salinity concentration, is Baltic sea- Arctic SeaGulf of California-Red sea. 97. A region of the globe found over the oceans near the equator in the intertropical convergence zone and having weather characterized variously by calm air, light winds, or squalls and thunderstorms is called Doldrums. 98. There are four terrestrial planets in our Solar System: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. The terrestrial planets in our Solar System are also known as the inner planets because these planets are the four closest to the Sun. 99. Albedo is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation) reflected from the Earth back into space. 100. The edge of the sunlit hemisphere forms a circular boundary separating the earth into a light half and a dark half. 101. Srisailam Dam is the 2nd largest capacity hydroelectric project in the country. The dam is constructed across the Krishna River which flows in the Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh. 102. Black holes are regions of spacetime from which nothing, not even light, can escape. A typical black hole is the result of

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the gravitational force becoming so strong that one would have to travel faster than light to escape its pull. Such black holes contain a spacetime singularity at their centre. 103. A compiler is a special programme that processes statements written in a particular programming language and turns them into machine language or "code" that a computer's processor uses. 104. The official mascots of the 2008 Beijing Olympics were inspired by the Five Olympic Rings. Named Fuwa in Chinese, or Friendlies in English, these adorable characters have become beloved both home and abroad. They were designed to represent the playfulness of children who form a circle of friends. They five mascots represent four of China's living animal treasures, the Panda, the Tibetan Antelope, the Swallow, the Fish, and the Olympic Flame. 105. 106. The prize is not awarded posthumously; however, if a person is awarded a prize and dies before receiving it, the prize may still be presented. Noble Prize in Economics is given since 1969. 107. The act led to strong public protest especially in Manipur where Irom Sharmila has been on hunger strike for the past 12 years with the demand of abolishing Armed Forces Special Power Act 1958. 108. The aircraft did not have AOR clearance. The plane was travelling to Bangkok, Thailand from Fujiriah, United Arab Emirates. 109. 110. Both statements are individually true and Statement ll is the correct explanation of Statement l 111. The Swiss federal government remains deeply divided over EU membership as its long-term goal, and in a March 2001 referendum more than 70% of Swiss voters rejected rapid steps toward EU membership. 112. 113. The Indian Council of Medical Research the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research. In 1911, the Government of India set up the Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) with the specific objective of sponsoring and coordinating medical research in the country. After independence, several important changes were made in the organisation and the activities of the IRFA. It was redesignated the Indian Council of

MockTime.com Medical Research (ICMR) in 1949 with considerably expanded scope of functions. 114. China 115. 116. 117. India's Look East policy represents its efforts to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of Southeast Asia in order to bolster its standing as a regional power and a counterweight to the strategic influence of the People's Republic of China. It was initiated in 1991. 118. The Pulitzer Prize for fiction was given to Adam Johnson for his work 'The orphan Master's Son'. 119. The theme of World Environment Day 2014 is"Small Islands and Climate Change". 120. Indian Air Force on 18 September 2014 gifted a vintage Dakota aircraft from its museum to Bangladesh Air Force. The Dakota aircraft played a crucial role in liberation of Bangladesh and formation of Bangladesh Air Force. The Dakota aircraft was given on a formal request from Bangladesh Air Force to review and revive the historic ties between the two countries.

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. ―Cattle rustling‖ refers to: (a) Infertile cattle of no use to man (b) Poaching (c) Theft of cattle (d) Stray cattle Q2. Which of the following ecosystems are not managed humans ? (a) Urban parks (b) National parks (c) Farms (d) Plantations Q3. Artemessin, one of the most anti-malarial drugs used to-day, is extracted from : (a) Neem tree (b) Wormwood plant (c) Cinchona tree. (d) Neem and cinchona tree. Q4. In a mountainous terrain, rich biodiversity is found in areas located at (a) lower latitudes and higher altitudes (b) Higher latitudes and lower altitude (c) lower latitudes and lower altitudes (d) Higher latitudes and higher altitudes Q5. Which of the following metals are present in haemoglobin and chlorophyll, respectively? (a) Fe and Mg (b) Fe and Zn (c) Mg and Zn (d) Zn and Mg Q6. Which one of the following properties changes with valency? (a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight (c) Molecular weight (d) Density Q7. Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry? (a) Magnesium oxide (b) Magnesium carbonate (c) Magnesium chloride (d) Magnesium sulphate

Q8. Which one among the following has been producing/can produce light by a chemical change? (a) Sun (b) Moon (c) Electric bulb (d) Lightning and thunder Q9. Which one among the following substances evolves heat when dissolved in water? (a) Potassium nitrate (b) Sodium chloride (c) Glucose (d) Calcium oxide Q10. The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizer are (a) carbon, iron and boron (b) magnesium, manganese and sulphur (c) magnesium, zinc and iron (d) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium Q11. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are responsible for acid rains? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Oxides of carbon Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and2 (b) 1 and3 (c) Only2 (d) 1,2 and3 Q12. A metal screw top on a glass bottle which appears to be stuck could be opened by using the fact that (a) the metal expands more than the glass when both are heated (b) the metal and glass expand identically when heated (c) the metal shrinks when heated (d) Both metal and glass shrink when cooled Q13. Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint (a) Green (b) White (c) Red (d) Blue Q14. An example of a natural dye is (a) phenolphthalein (b) martius yellow (c) alizarin

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(d) malachite green Q15. The compound that is not a natural product is (a) a-pinene (b) citral (c) camphor (d) diethyl phthalate Q16. Most glasses contain about 71% by weight of (a) silicon dioxide (b) carbon dioxide (c) sulphur dioxide (d) calcium carbonate Q17. Bar is a unit of which one of the following? (a) Force (b) Energy (c) Pressure (d) Frequency Q18. Consider the following statements 1. Clear sky appears blue due to poor scattering of blue wavelength of visible light. 2. Red part of light shows more scattering than blue light in the atmosphere. 3. In the absence of atmosphere, there would be no scattering of light and sky will look black. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these Q19. In scuba-diving, while ascending towards the water surface, there is a danger of bursting the lungs. It is because of (a) Archimedes' principle (b) Boyle's law (c) Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes (d) Graham's law of diffusion

Q20. Two identical piano wires have same fundamental frequency when kept under the same tension. What will happen if tension of one of the wire is slightly increased and both the wires are made to vibrate simultaneously?

MockTime.com (a) Noise (b) Beats (c) Resonance (d) Non-linear effects Q21. The celsius temperature is a/an (a) relative temperature (b) absolute temperature (c) specific temperature (d) approximate temperature Q22. A mobile phone charger is (a) an inverter (b) a UPS (c) a step-down transformer (d) a step-up transformer Q23. Creation of something from nothing is against the law of (a) constant proportions (b) conservation of mass-energy (c) multiple proportions (d) conservation of momentum Q24. Consider the following statements regarding AM (amplitude modulation) and FM (frequency modulation) radio signals: 1. AM radio waves bounce off the ionic layers in the atmosphere. 2. FM radio waves penetrate the ionic layer. 3.FM transmission is accomplished on a line of sight basis. 4.Frequency of FM radio waves is much lower than that of AM radio waves Of these statements (a) Only 1 and 3 are correct (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1,2 and 3 are correct (d) All four are correct Q25. An 80 kg man, a 40 kg woman and a 20 kg girl skydive simultaneously. If their parachutes are identical, then (a) The girl will land first of all (b) The woman will land first of all (c) The man will land first of all (d) All three will land simultaneously Q26. Several colours on the screen of x colour television are produced by mixing lights of colours: (a) Red, yellow and green (b) Red, yellow and blue (c) Red, green and blue (d) Yellow, green and blue

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Q27. The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% more than that of the return journey. The train halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to and fro journey is 17 hours covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is (a) 45 km per hour (b) 47.06 km per hour (c) 50.00 km per hour (d) 56.25 km per hour Q28. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q29. Which one of the following is the subject of the Narasimhan Committee Reports of years 1991 and 1998? (a) Administrative Reforms (b) Banking Reforms (c) Constitutional Reforms (d) Electoral Reforms Q30. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (c) Dr BR Ambedkar (d) T Krishnamachari Q31. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj? (a) Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs (b) Creation of a three-tier system (c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (d) Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj Institution Q32. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? (a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction (c) Epistolary Jurisdiction (d) Advisory Jurisdiction Q33. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be provided in India? 1. One should be born in India. 2. Either of whose parents was born in India

MockTime.com 3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than five years. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these Q34. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in (a) either house of the Parliament (b) a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament (c) the Lok Sabha alone (d) the Rajya Sabha alone Q35. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make provision for (a) establishment of claims commission and appointment of claims commissioner (b) a liability cap of `1500 crore on an operator in case of an accident (c) a liability cap of `1500 crore also on the Government of India in case of an accident (d) liability of the operator even if an accident is unintentional Q36. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may 1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature. 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President. 3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Q37. The Constitution of India is republican because it (a) provides for an elected Parliament (b) provides for adult franchise (c) contains a bill of rights (d) has no hereditary elements Q38. Which one among the following is not a recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment of the Governor in a state?

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(a) He/She must not have participated in active politics at least for sometime before his/her appointment as Governor (b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be consulted by the President in selecting a Governor (c) The Governor's term of office of five years should not be disturbed except very rarely (d) The Governor should not be the native of the state Q39. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) The right conferred by Article 32 cann ot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of India (b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended (c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India (d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order Q40. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament 1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government. 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q41. Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct? (a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees (c) The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years (d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women Q42. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in respect of which one of following matters?

MockTime.com (a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance of order in the area where martial law was in force (b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when martial law was in force in the area (c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martial law was in force in the area (d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law Q43. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is (a) 550 (b) 470 (c) 475 (d) 552 Q44. Consider the following statements in reference to the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act: 1.The Governor of a State constitutes a Finance Commission every fifth year to review the financial position of the Panchayats under Article 243-1 of the Constitution of India 2.The superintendence, direction and control of all elections to the Panchayats are vested in a State Election Commission under Article 243-K of the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q45. Which one of the following vitamins is abundant in guava fruits? (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B12 (c) Vitamin-C (d) Vitamin-D Q46. The persons working in textile factories such as carpet weavers are exposed to which of the following occupational diseases? (a) Asbestosis (b) Asthma and tuberculosis (c) Silicosis (d) Siderosis Q47. Which one of the following is a major constituent of biogas?

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(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide Q48. Which one of the following is an example of vestigial organ in man? (a) Jaw apparatus (b) Ear muscles (c) Canine teeth (d) Humerus Q49. Which among the following oils has the maximum protein content? (a) Castor oil (b) Sunflower oil (c) Soyabean oil (d) Safflower oil Q50. Consider the following statements 1.Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make adrenaline. 2. Iodine deficiency leads to goitre in human beings. 3.Iodine is secreted by pancreas and helps in regulating cholesterol level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and3 (b) 1 and2 (c) 1 and3 (d) Only2 Q51. Match the following List I (S ugar) - List II (Source) A. Cellulos e -1 Honey B. Pituitary -2 Sugarcane C. M altose -3 Cotton woo D. Sucrose -4 Starch Codes A B C D (a) 3142 (b) 3412 (c) 2143 (d) 2413 Q52. Why do you feel cool under a tree but not so under a tin shed on a sunny day? (a) The greenness of the tree gives the cool feeling (b) Photosynthesis absorbs heat (c) The leaves convert water vapours into water which is a heat-absorbing process (d) The leaves give out water which vapourises absorbing some heat as latent heat

MockTime.com Q53. Consider the following statements regarding antibiotics 1.They are used to destroy disease-causing bacteria. 2. They can be applied to the skin, swallowed or injected to fight micro-organisms inside the body. 3.They are effective against disease-causing viruses. 4.The first antibiotic to be discovered was Tetracycline. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and2 (b) 1,2 and4 (c) 2,3 and4 (d) Only1 Q54. Match the following List I - List II (Gland) (Hormone) A. Pancreas -1 Cortisol B. Pituitary -2 Vitamin D C. Adrenal -3 Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Kidneys -4 Glucagon Codes A B C D (a) 4312 (b) 4132 (c) 2134 (d) 2314 Q55. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Animal) - List II (Phyla) A. Ascaris -1.Mammalia B. Malarial parasite -2. Arthropoda C. Housefly -3.Nematoda D. Cow -4.Protozoa Code:ABCD (a) 3421 (b) 3241 (c) 1243 (d) 1423 Q56. Which one of the following vitamins helps in clotting of blood? (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B6 (c) Vitamin-D (d) Vitamin Q57. The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following? 1. Greater attention to land reforms. 2. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area. 3. Promote animal husbandry and fishery.

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4. Interest free credit to the farmers. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Q58. National income ignores (a) sales of a firm (b) salary of employees (c) exports of the IT sector (d) sale of land Q59. FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all products is now permitted in India subject to 1. a ceiling of 51% 2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor is US $100 million. 3. atleast 50% of the procurement of manufactured/ processed products should be sourced from 'small industries'. 4. retail sales locations set-up only in cities with a population of more than 10 lakh. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4 Q60. Which bank is limited to the needs of agriculture and rural finance? (a) SBI (b) NABARD (c) IFC (d) RBI Q61. The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in same proportion is known as law of (a) Returns to scale (b) Diminishing returns (c) Increasing returns (d) Constant returns Q62. According to Census 2011, the three top places in respect of literacy went to: (a) Kerala, West Bengal, Goa (b) Mizoram, Kerala, Tripura (c) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram (d) Chandigarh, Kerala, Goa Q63. Greening of the East refers to (a) fodder cultivation in Eastern India

MockTime.com (b) intensive forestry development of Andaman Nicobar (c) agricultural development in East European countries (d) Spread of Green Revolution to nontraditional areas of Eastern India Q64. Which of the following is not a central government tax? (a) Income tax (b) Customs (c) land revenue (d) Corporation tax Q65. The argument for reduction in the rate of taxation to promote economic activity rests on the following premises: I. Lower taxes increase the amount of savings II. Moderate taxes lead to lower prices III. It promotes consumption IV. It increases governments revenue. (a) all four (b) I only (c) IV only (d) 1 and 3 Q66. Basel III norms have been prescribed for (a) preventing and detecting money laundering (b) preventing adulteration of food and confectionery (c) improving banking systems ability to withstand shocks (d) overcoming the threats posed to civil aviation due to terrorism. Q67. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of India‘s food policy? (a) To avert famine by maintaining buffer stock (b) To keep the cost of living index of employees from rising (c) To ensure remunerative prices to farmers (d) To maintain general price level Q68. Our Constitution stipulates that the State shall ensure that the economic system does not promote concentration of wealth and means of production. This principle is enshrined in (a) Art. 14 (b) Art.39 (c) Art.41 (d) Art. 197

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Q69. Who among the following was the first Governor General of India? (a) Lord Amherst (b) Lord William Bentinck (c) Sir Charles Metcalfe (d) Robert Clive

Q70. In Buddhism, what does Patimokkha stand for? (a) A description of Mahayana Buddhism (b) A description of Hinayana Buddhism (c) The rules of the Sangha (d) The questions of king Menander Q71. Who among the following had moved the objectives resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946? (a) Dr B R Ambedkar (b) Dr Rajendra Prasad (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Q72. Consider the following statements about Swami Vivekananda 1. He said that Vedanta was the religion of all. 2. He believed in reviving all the best traditions of Hinduism. 3. He was impressed by the status of women in the West. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q73. Which of the following was/were the main feature (s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims. 2. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces. 3. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3

MockTime.com (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 Q74. Statement I: Bal Gangadhar Tilak sought to diffuse the spirit of nationalism among the masses. Statement II: Tilak organised a corps of volunteers to help the famine stricken people in the Deccan. Codes: (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Satement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q75. Consider the following statement and identify with the help of the codes given below, the person who made the statement ‗It would be quite impossible for a few hundred British to administer against the active opposition of the whole of the politically minded fo the population. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru in April, 1947 in an address to Congressmen at Lucknow (b) Clement Attlee January, 1947 in a private letter addressed to Ernest Bevin (c) Lord Mountbatten in December, 1946 in a note given to British Parliament (d) Viceroy Wavell in January, 1946 in a letter to Secretary of State Q76. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the (a) Minto-Morley reforms (b) Montague-Chelmsford reforms (c) Simon Commission (d) First Round Table Conference Q77. Match the following List I (Battle) - List II (Treaty) A. The Third Carnatic - 1. Treaty of Salbai War B. The Third Mysore - 2. Treaty of Lahore War C. The First Maratha War - 3. Treaty of Paris D. The First Anglo - 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam Sikh War Codes: A B C D A BCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 413 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 14 2

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Q78. Dalhousie has been regarded as the maker of modern India because he brought about reforms and made a beginning in many fields. Which one among the following was not one of his schemes of reforms? (a) Educational reforms (b) Construction of railways and introduction of telegraph and postal services (c) Establishment of a public works department (d) Factories Act to improve the condition of Indian labour Q79. The first Indian ruler to be shown in images as wearing a dress akin to trousers is (a) Chandragupta (b) Ashoka (c) Kanishka (d) Samudragupta Q80. Ibn Batuta‘s work, Rihla, completed in 1355, is (a) an autobiography (b) an account of the Delhi Sultans from Aibak to Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (c) a religious text (d) an account of trade with Morocco Q81. Statement I: The economy of India in the 19th century came to a state of ruin under English East India Company. Statement II: English East India Company‘s acquisition of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry of India. (a) Both the statemtns are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q82. Which one of the following statements about Rig Veda is not correct? (a) Deities were worshipped through prayer and sacrificial rituals (b) The Gods are presented as powerful, who could be made to intervene in the world of men via the performance of sacrifices (c) The Gods were supposed to partake of the offerings as they were consumed by the fire

MockTime.com (d) The sacrifices were performed in the temples Q83. The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to start a revolt in India. Which among the following provinces did the party choose to begin its armed revolt? (a) Punjab (b) Bengal (c) United Provinces (d) Bihar Q84. Which of the following characteristics about the state of Travancore in 18th century Kerala is/are correct? 1. Travancore was ruled by Marthanda Varma from 1729 to 1758. 2. Travancore built a strong army and defeated the Dutch in 1741. 3. Travancore was an important centre of learning. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Q85. Which one of the following places is famous for production of railways coaches? (a) Nasik (b) Kapurthala (c) Kanpur (d) Kochi Q86. Which one of the following is the oldest mountain range in India? (a) Himalayas (b) Aravalli (c) Satpura (d) Nilgiri Q87. Which one of the following zones of the atmosphere is rich in ozone gas? (a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Stratosphere (d) Ionosphere Q88. Radio waves are reflected back to Earth from the (a) Troposphere (b) Exosphere (c) Stratosphere (d) Ionosphere

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Q89. Which of the following statements with regard to rainfall in India is/are correct? 1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the SouthWest monsoon. 2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from the Eastern Chats. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q90. Which one of die following statements is not correct regarding the Himalayas? (a) Hmalayas have nappe and recumbent folds (b) Himalayas rose up from the Tethys Sea (c) Himalayas contain three mountain rangesSiwaliks, Great Himalayas and kunlun Ranges (d) The orogeny took place in the Tertiary Era Q91. Which one of the following mountain ranges separates Europe from Asia? (a) Apenine (b) Black Forest (c) Ural (d) Sulaiman Q92. Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to (a) conduction of heat between air and soil on the Earth (b) radiation from the soil (c) convection current of air (d) None of the above Q93. Why do Fold Mountains have enormous thickness of sedimentary rocks? (a) Due to deposition of sediments in a valley for millions of years (b) Due to accumulation of sediments in a geosyncline (c) The plains were folded into mountains (d) The sediments were folded into recumbent and nappe folds Q94. Which of the following statements regarding ozone layer within the atmosphere is/are correct? 1. It absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation found in the Sun's rays. 2. Chlorofluorocarbons are serious threat to the ozone layer. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1

MockTime.com (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q95. The country that shares longest border with India is (a) China (b) Bangladesh (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan Q96. Match the following List I List II (Tribal Group) (State where Prodominantly Located) A. Reang -1. Arunachal Pradesh B. Dimasa -2. Nagaland C. Konyak -3. Tripura D. Mishmi - 4. Asom Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Q97. Ozone holes are more pronounced at the (a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) Poles Q98. Veliconda hills, which is a part of Eastern Ghats, is situated in (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d Andhra Pradesh (d) Q99. Confirmation of the presence of Higgs Boson will justify (a) both the standard model and superstring theory (b) the unification of all the four fundamental forces (c) the steady-state model of the universe (d) the mass of the fundamental particles Q100. The Circle of illumination divides Earth into two hemispheres known as (a) East and West (b) North and South (c) Day and night (d) Summer and Winter Q101. Veliconda group of low hills is a structural part of

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(a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Western Ghats (c) Eastern Ghats. (d) Cardamom Hills Q102. Which of the following is/are West flowing river(s) of India? 1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna 3. Narmada 4. Cauvery Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q103. The quarantine regulation for preventing entry of diseased plants into the country is done by which one of the following? (a) National Botanical Research Institute (b) Botanical Survey of India (c) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research Q104. Who among the following has created world record in the men's 100 metre sprint event at 2008 Olympic Games? (a) Usain Bolt (b) Churandy Martina (c) Asafa Powell (d) Walter Dix Q105. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnager awards are given to those who excel in the field of science and technology. The Institute associated with Professor Shanti Swaroop Bhatnager is (a) CSIR (b) DST (c) ICMR (d) IISc Q106. Consider the following statements 1. Nuclear winter is a term that describes the predicted climatic effects of nuclear war. 2. A 2008, study published in the proceedings of the National Academy of Science, USA found that a nuclear weapons exchange between Pakistan and India using their current arsenals could create a nearglobal ozone hole, triggering human health problems and wreaking environmental havoc

MockTime.com for at least a decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q107. Which one of the following is not an issue straining IndoChina relations? (a) Construction of a dam across the river Brahmaputra in Tibet (b) Visit of Dalai Lama to Arunachal Pradesh (c) Satapling of Chinese visa for the people of Jammu and Kashmir (d) Linking Kashmir valley with the Indian Railways Network Q108. Which one of the following can be provided under RTI Act, 2005? (a) Information leading to incitement of an offense (b) Information leading to disclosure that may constitute contempt of court (c) Conditional disclosure relating to information on intellectual property (d) Information relating to Cabinet Papers recording deliberations of Council of Ministers Q109. An Inconvenient Truth' is film directed by AI Gore to promote public awareness about (a) terrorism (b) global warming (c) nuclear threats (d) communalism Q110. To boost India's power-generating capacity, the Jawaharlal Nehru Solar Mission was launched in India in January 2010. Which of the following statements regarding this Mission is/are correct? 1. India is fast exhausting reserves of fossil fuel resources. 2. Solar energy is a clean source of energy. 3. India lacks technology for development of other alternative sources of power generation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 Q111. Evergreening of patents is done by (a) citing another use of the same product

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(b) citing another process of forming the same product (c) applying for extension of patent term (d) citing another product with same use Q112. The 'Shillong Declaration,' in news recently, was on (a) Food Security Act (b) Right to Education Act (c) Prevention of Corruption Act (d) Right to Information Act Q113. In the year 2011, a scientist from USA discovered 'BISIN' which (a) is a natural preservative and can extend food's life for several years (b) can insulate cells of brain (c) claims for fastest prevention of bacterial infection (d) is a distant galaxy Q114. Who won the Wimbledon 2011 men's singles title? (a) Novak Djokovic (b) Roger Federer (c) Rafael Nadal (d) Andy Roddick Q115. Which one among the following nuclear capable countries has a declared No First Use Policy? (a) United States of America (b) People's Republic of China (c) Pakistan (d) Russia Q116. Which one among the following countries initiated the process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition? (a) Libya (b) Afghanistan (c) Tunisia (d) Morocco Q117. Which one among the following was the main demand of the '2013 Shahbag Protests'? (a) Employment for all above eighteen years (b) Equal rights for men and women (c) Capital punishment for those convicted of crimes against humanity during 1971, Bangladesh Liberation War (d) Introduction of Urdu and Arabic languages as compulsory subjects in primary education

MockTime.com Q118. VS Ramadevi, who died in Bengaluru on April 17, 2013, was the Governor of Karnataka and Himachal Pradesh. What was more specific abou her? She was the (a) Governor of the two States simultaneously (b) only female Chief Election Commissioner of India (c) only female Indian High Commissioner to United Kingdom (d) Governor of Reserve Bank of India Q119. Union Government in June 2014 granted Navaratna status to 1. Engineers India Ltd. 2. Coal India Ltd. 3. India Trade Promotion Organization 4. National Buildings Construction Corporation Ltd. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Q120. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of National AYUSH Mission, approved by the Union Cabinet recently? 1. Improvement of AYUSH education through enhancement in the number of upgraded educational institutions. 2. Better access to AYUSH services through increase in the AYUSH hospitals and dispensaries, availability of drugs and manpower. 3. Providing sustained availability of quality raw material for AYUSH system of medicine. Select the correct answer using the code giver below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2 only 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. a 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. D 60. B 61. A 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. a 82. d 83. a 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. c 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. d 98. d 99. a 100. c 101. c 102. c 103. c 104. a 105. a 106. b 107. d 108. c 109. b 110. b 111. c

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112. d 113. a 114. a 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Fe and Mg metals are present in haemoglobin and chlorophyll respectively. 6. Only equivalent weight changes with valency atomic weight, molecular weight and density does not change with valency. Equivalent weight of the element = Atomic weight Valency 7. Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry. 8. In a chemical change a new substance is formed. Sun has been producing light by nuclear fusion and it is a chemical change.1404 H He2 e Energy11 ¾¾® + + g +2 +57 9. When calcium oxide or quicklime (CaO) is dissolved in water, calcium hydroxide or limewater is obtained and there is a release of heat.22 Quick lime Lime water CaO H O Ca(OH) Heat +® + 10. The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizers are magnesium, manganese and sulphur. 11. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are responsible for acid rain. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide, react with the water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids. 12. Both metal and glass expand when heated. Here glass is a non-metal. Metal expands more than non-metal due to temperature change. 13. Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint green. 14. 15. 16. 17. 1 Bar = 105 Pa. Both bar and Pa are the unit of pressure. 18. The appearance of blue colour of sky is due to scattering of light which is not possible in absence of atmosphere. 19. As scuba driver ascends towards the water surface, water pressure decreases, so according to Boyle's law air in his lungs expands to occupy a greater volume. Which increase the chances of bursting the lungs. 20. Resonance is the tendency of a system to oscillate at a greater amplitude at some frequencies than at others.

MockTime.com 21. The degree celsius (°C) can refer to a specific temperature on the celsius scale as well as a unit to indicate a temperature interval, a difference between two temperatures or an uncertainty. 22. A mobile phone charger is basically a step-down transformer which converts high voltage to low voltage. 23. Creation of something from nothing is against the law of conservation of mass energy. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime Minister of Indiaon 15 August 1947, and chose 15 other members for his cabi net in which B. R. Ambedkar was the first law minister of India. 31. Creation of a three-tier system was not the recommendation of Ashok Mehta Committee. According to this committee,the 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the 2-tier system. Ashoka Mehta committee was appointed by the Janata Government under the chairmanship of Ashoka Mehta. 32. PIL (Public Interest Litigation) writ petition can be filed in Supreme Court under Article 32 only if a question concerning the enforcement of a fundamental right is involved. Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed in a High court whether or not a Fundamental Right is involved. Thus, it comes under appellate jurisdiction. 33. Under article 5 of the Indian Constitution Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (a) who was born in the territory of India; or (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years preceding such commencement, shall be a citizen of India. 34. Under Article 61, the President of India can be removed from the office by a process of impeachment for the violation of the Constitution. The impeachment is to be initiated by either House of Parliament. 35. The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Bill 2010 fixes liability for nuclear damage and specifies procedures for compensating

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victims. Clause '6' of this act defines the share of financial liability. It states that the liability of an operator for each nuclear incident shall be for nuclear reactors having power equal to 10 MW or above Rs. 1,500 crores. 36. All of the above statements are correct. 37. The constitution of India is republican because it provides for an elected parliament. 38. Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. According to the commission, Chief Minister should be consulted before appointing the Governor. 39. The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part lll and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. 40. The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pinpoint the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law. 41. The Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted on 29th April 1997. The Committee consists of 30 Members of whom 20 are nominated by the Speaker from amongst the Members of Lok Sabha and 10 are nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha from amongst the Members of the Rajya Sabha. A Minister cannot be nominated a Member of the Committee. The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. One of the functions of the committee is to report on the working of the welfare programmes for the women. 42. Any act done under martial law cannot be validated by parliament by law. 43. 44. 45. Vitamin-C is enough in guava fruits. Vitamin-C helps in strengthening of immunity, serves as an antioxidant and provides relief in hypertension too. 46. Asthma is a chronic lung disease. It inflames and narrows the air ways. Tuberculosis is a lung disease created by mycobacterium tuberculosis. Workers in textile factories and carpet manufacturing units are the common suffers of asthma and tuberculosis. 47. Biogas is typically a gas evolved by the biological breakdown of organic wastes in

MockTime.com absence of O2. It is used as biofuel and made up basically of CH4 (50-75% ), CO2 (25-50% ) N2 (0 -10% ), H2 (0-1% ), H2 s (0-3% ) and O2 (0-1% ). 48. The ear muscles are vestigial organs in man. Vestigial organs are not functional in organisms. These are not active in related animals but were functional in their ancestors. There are more than90 vestigial organs in human beings. 49. Castor oil is a vegetable oil got from castor bean. Castor oil is colourless to pale yellow liquid having very high protein content souleff. 50. lodine deficiency causes goitre in human beings. Iodine is the main component for the production of thyroxine from thyroid gland and the main reason of goitre is hypo or hyperthyroidism. 51. Cotton wool is acquired from cotton plant. It consists of cellulose. Fructose is fruit sugar present in honey and other fruits. Starch is a polysaccharide. It breaks down into maltose during digestion whereas sucrose is common suger. It is a disaccharide having glucose ans fructose and i s acquired from sugarcane. 52. The transpiration takes place from the leaves surface all the time. The water taken out from leaves absorbs heat from the surrounding atmosphere to vapourise so the area under a tree becomes cool. 53. Antibiotics are very effective medicines that treat bacterial infections. They are ineffective against viral infection as viruses have different genetic makeup as compared to bacteria. 54. Pancreas secretes glucagon hormone, pituitary secretes thyroid stimulating hormone. Adrenal glands secrete cortisol and kidney synthesises or converts biological inactive25-hydroxychole calciferol (vitamin D3) into biological active1,25 dihydroxychole calciferol (vitamin D-3). 55. The correct match is as follows: Ascaria Nematoda Malarial parasite - Protozoa Housefly - Arthropoda Cow - Mammalia 56. Vitamin-K adds in blood clotting. Vitamin-K acts as an essential cofactor for factor-II, VII, IX, X and also for proteins Z, C and S. 57. 58. National Income ignores sale of land. 59. In respect to multi-brand retail trading, changes made in 2012 permitted up to 51% FDI with prior government approval. The

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foreign investor has to bring in a minimum investment of USD 100 million in an entity engaged in multi brand retail trading. Similar to the requirement of mandatory local sourcing as applicable in single brand product trading (prior to Cabinet meeting) at least 30% of the procurement of manufactured/ processed products shall be sourced from `small industries`. The reach of retail sales outlets of foreign multi brand retail trader will be limited to only those cities with a population of 1 million (including an area of 10 kilometres around the municipal/urban agglomeration limits of such cities). 60. Committee to review the arrangements for institutional credit for agriculture and rural development (CRAFICARD) under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, recommended the formation of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). The bank came into existence on 12 July 1982. It is limited to the need of agriculture and rural finance. 61. The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in the same proportion is known as "law of return to scale". 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Patimokkha stands for the rules of the Sangha. Buddha Dhamma and Sangha are the three Jewels of Buddhism. 71. The historic Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946, and was adopted unanimously on 22 January 1947. 72. All statements are correct. 73. Some of the features of Government of India Act 1919(Montague Chelmsford Reforms) are as follows: • It introduced Diarchy system. • The Government of India Act of 1919, made a provision for classification of the central and provincial subjects. • The Indian executive comprise d of the Governor General and his council. • This act made the central legislature bicameral. The first house which was central legislature, with 145 members (out of which 104 elected and 41 nominated) was called central Legislative Assembly and second cal led with

MockTime.com 60 members (out of which 33 elected and 27 nominated) was called Council of States. The term of the assembly was fixed 3 years and council 5 years. • The act provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India for the first time. 74. 75. This statement was made by Clement Attlee.He was a British Labour Partyleader and prime minister of Britain during the period of 1945-51.He was known for the granting of independence to India. 76. Simon Commission was appointed under the chairmanship of Sir John Simonin November 1927 by the British government to report on the working of the Indian constitution established by the Government of India Act of 1919. The commission consisted of seven members. None of the Indians was appointed in the commission. 77. The third Carnatik war- Treaty of Paris (1763) The Third mysore war- Treaty of Srirangapatnam(1792) The first Maratha warTreaty of salbai(1782) The first Anglo sikh war- Treaty of Lahore (1846) 78. Factory act to improve the condition of Indian labour was not an initiativeof reforms of Dalhousie.It is associated with lord Ripon. 79. Kanishka was the first Indian ruler who has been shown in images as wearing a dress akin to trousers. 80. Abu Abdullah Muhammad Ibn Battuta, better known simply as Ibn Battuta (1304circa 1377 AD) was a Berber Muslim scholar and traveler, who was born in Tangier, Morocco. He travelled almost 30 years. In that period, he covered nearly the entirety of the known Islamic world and beyond: from North Africa, West Africa, Southern Europe and Eastern Europe. 81. Both statements are true and statement ll is correct explanation of statement I Britain ruined India's previous economy and industries as a result of Britain forcing them to import their goods from Britain and not buy their own goods from India. Industries such as the handmade cloth industry, clockmaking, metal, and carpentry industries, fell because cloth was made of better quality for cheaper in Britain because of mass production. 82. The mode of worship was worship of the elements like fire and rivers, worship of heroic gods like Indra, chanting of hymns and performance of sacrifices. They were not associated with temples.

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83. The Ghadar Party was an organization founded by Punjabi Indians in the United Statesand Canada with the aim of securing India's independence from British rule. After the outbreak of World War I, Ghadar party members returned to Punjab to agitate for rebellion alongside the Babbar Akali Movement. 84. Marthanda Varma was king of Travancore from 1729 to 1758.The Travancore-Dutch War was fought between the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Indian kingdom of Travancore, culminating in the Battle of Colachel in 1741.Travancore became the second most prosperous princely state in British India with reputed achievements in education, political administration, public work and social reforms. 85. Kapurthala is a city in Punjab state and famous for production of railway coaches, it was established in 1986 by the government of India. 86. The Aravalli range are the oldest fold mountains in India. 87. Stratosphere is rich in Ozone gas. 88. Radio waves are reflected back to earth from the Ionosphere. The ionosphere is a shell of electrons and electrically charged atoms and molecules that surrounds the Earth. It is a region of Earth's upper atmosphere, from about 60 km to 600 km altitude. 89. The summer or south-west monsoon comes in from the direction of Africa, and brings heavy rain to the west coast and large areas of northern India between June and August. The Western Ghats intercepts the Southwestern Monsoon winds. The Western slopes of the mountains experience heavy annual rainfall (with 80 percent of it falling during the southwest monsoon from June to September), while the Eastern slopes are drier; rainfall also decreases from South to North. 90. Himalayas contain three mountain ranges the Himadri (greater Himalaya), Himachal (lesser Himalaya) and the Shiwaliks (outer Himalaya). 91. The Ural Mountain range forms the natural boundary between Europe and Asia. The Ural Mountains extend about 2,500 km from the Kara Sea to the Kazakh Steppe along the northern border of Kazakhstan. This range marks the northern part of the

MockTime.com border between the continents of Europe and Asia. 92. Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to conduction of heat between air and soil on the Earth. 93. Fold Mountains form when two tectonic plates move together (a convergent plate boundary). Fold Mountains form from sedimentary rocks that accumulate along the margins of continents. 94. Ozone Layer absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation found in the sun's rays. Chlorofluorocarbon is a serious threat to the ozone layer. Other Ozone depleting gases are Halon, Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3), Methyl bromide (CH3Br) etc. 95. Bangladesh shares longest border with India. India and Bangladesh share a 4,096 kilometres long international border. Itis the fifth-longest land border in the world. 96. Reang is the scheduled tribes of the Indian state of Tripura. Dimasa is a tribalgroup of people in Assam. The Konyak are the Naga tribal group.Mishmi tribal people are mostly of Arunachal Pradesh (formerly North East Frontier Agency) in extreme northeastern India, near Tibet and Assam, speaking dialects of the TibetoBurman linguistic family. 97. Ozone holes are more pronounced at the polar regions especially over Antarctica. 98. Veliconda Hills are situated in southeastern Andhra Pradesh state. They form the eastern flank of the Eastern Ghats. 99. The Higgs boson (or Higgs particle) is a particle that gives mass to other particles. Peter Higgs was the first person to think of it and the particle was found in March 2013. The Higgs boson or Higgs particle is an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics. Superstring theory is an attempt to explain all of the particles and fundamental forces of nature in one theory by modelling them as vibrations of tiny supersymmetric strings. 100. A landlocked country is a country entirely enclosed by land or whose only coastlines lie on closed seas. Angola is situated in Southern Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Namibia and Democratic Republic of the Congo. 101. The Velikonda Range isa low mountain range that forms part of the Eastern Ghats mountain range system.

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102. West flowing rivers: Narmada River(1057 km)- Rises in Amarkantak Plateau and flows in to gulf of khambat Tapti(724 km) - Rises from Betul district in Maharashtra. Luni and Payaswani are also west flowing rivers. 103. NBPGR's one of the activities is to conduct plant quarantine examination of plant materials introduced by the Bureau for pests and pathogens; treat and salvage infested/infected material and carry out research on plant quarantine/seed-health problems. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) was established in 1976. 104. 105. The award is named after the founder Director of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) India, the late Dr (Sir) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar and is known as the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) Prize for Science and Technology. The Prize is given each year for outstanding contributions to science and technology. 106. Nuclear winter is a term that describes the climatic effects of nuclear war. It is a hypothetical climatic effect. A 2008 study published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Science found that a nuclear weapons exchange between Pakistan and India using their current arsenals could create a near-global ozone hole, triggering human health problems and causing environmental damage for at least a decade. 107. Linking Kashmir valley with the Indian railways Network is not an issue straining Indo- China relations. 108. The following is exempt from disclosure under section 8 of the Act: Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information. 109. 110. 111. Evergreening is not a formal concept of patent law; it is best understood as a social idea used to refer to the myriad ways in which pharmaceutical patent owners use the law and related regulatory processes to extend their high rent-earning intellectual property rights particularly over highly profitable (either in total sales volume or price per unit) "blockbuster" drugs. It is used by

MockTime.com patent holders to extend the life of their patent protection beyond that available under TRIPS. 112. Right to Information conference passed a 12-point resolution urging that the law's jurisdiction be expanded to cover Public Private Partnership (PPP) entities, political parties, trade unions and nongovernmental organizations. The "Shillong Declaration" was approved at the conclusion of a three day national RTI conference in Shillong, attended by about 1,000 persons. The declarations also calls for transparency in all religious and faith-based institutions about the use of public money for private purposes. 113. The BISIN could extend the food's life for several years and even works for opened bottles of wine and salad dressing. BISIN occurs naturally in some types of harmless bacteria. It prevents the growth of lethal bacteria including E-coli, salmonella and listeria. The substance could extend the life of a variety of everyday foods which have strict use-by dates including seafood, cheese and canned goods. 114. Novak Djokovic won the Wimbledon 2011 men's single title. He won over Rafael Nadal. 115. No first use (NFU) refers to a pledge or a policy by a nuclear power not to use nuclear weapons as a means of warfare unless first attacked by an adversary using nuclear weapons. China became the first nation to propose and pledge NFU policy when it first gained nuclear capabilities in 1964, stating "not to be the first to use nuclear weapons at any time or under any circumstances. 116. Tunisia and Egypt are now in the process of democratic transition. The resignations of President Ben Ali and President Mubarak have paved the way towards democratic transition. 117. 2013 Shahbag protests began on 5 February 2013 and later spread to other parts of Bangladesh. The people demanded capital punishment for Abdul Quader Mollah, who had been sentenced to life imprisonment, and for others convicted of war crimes by the International Crimes Tribunal. 118. V S Ramadevi was the first and only woman to become Chief Election Commissioner of India. 119. The Union Government on 24 June 2014 granted Navratna status to Engineers

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India Ltd (EIL) and National Buildings Construction Corporation (NBCC). 120. On 15th September 2014, Government of India approved launching of National Ayush Mission (NAM) to address gaps in health services in vulnerable and far-flung areas of the country. Department of Indi an Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) was created in March 1995 and renamed as Department of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (Ayush) in November 2003 with a view to providing focused attention to Development of Education and Research in these systems of medicine.

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MockTime.com (d) Use of ion selective electrodes

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Extant species are (a) Loss of species due to extinction of another species (b) Those which are not extinct (c) Threatened species (d) Species undergoing mass extinctions. Q2. Match the items in List 1 with those in List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List I Ecosystem Services (Type), A. Supporting B. Provisioning C. Regulating D. Cultural List II Ecosystem service benefits 1.Recreational and aesthetic 2.Adjusting climate, floods, water quality 3.Soil formation, nutrient cycling 4.Food, clean water, timber (a) 1234 (b) 2413 (c) 3421 (d) 4321 Q3. The rich biodiversity of India is under severe threat due to: 1. Habitat destruction 2.Degradation 3.Fragmentation 4.Overexploitation (a) 1,2,3 (b) 2,3,4 (c) 1,3,4 (d) 1,2, 3, 4 Q4. Asia‘s largest inland saltwater lagoon as well as world‘s largest breeding place for colonies of flamingoes, white-bellied sea eagles, jacanas and herons is (a) Bhittar kanika Wild Life Sanctuary (b) Ranganathittu Wild Life Sanctuary (c) Thattekad Bird Sanctuary (d) Chilka Lake Bird Sanctuary Q5. Which one of the following is involved for desalination of sea water? (a) Reverse osmosis (b) Simple osmosis (c) Use of sodium aluminium silicate as zeolite

Q6. Which of the following has maximum density? (a) Chloroform (b) Water (c) Benzene (d) Ice Q7. Which of the following statements about the commonly used automobile battery are true? I. It is usually a lead-acid battery. II. It has six cells with a potential of2 V each. III. Its cells work as galvanic cells while discharging power. IV. Its cells work as electrolytic cells while recharging. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV Q8. A woman desires to clean the surface of her gold ornaments by a chemical approach. For this she requires to use (a) aqua-regia (b) concentrated H2 SO4 (c) concentrated NaOH (d) sodium thiosulphate solution Q9. Which one among the following would expand the most on being heated. (a) water (b) Alcohol (c) Glass (d) Air Q10. Which one among the following statements about an atom is not correct? (a) Atoms always combine to form molecules (b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed (c) Atoms are always neutral in nature (d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel and touch Q11. Which one among the following metals is used in fireworks to make a brilliant white light? (a) Sodium (b) Magnesium (c) Aluminium (d) Silver

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Q12. Which of the following are the two main constituents of granite? (a) Iron and silica (b) Iron and silver (c) Silica and aluminium (d) Iron oxide and potassium Q13. Statement I: During indigestion, milk of magnesia is taken to get rid of pain in the stomach. Statement II: Milk of magnesia is a base and it neutralizes the excess acid in the stomach. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q14. The bio molecules that contribute to the genetic material of cells are (a) nucleic acids (b) proteins (c) lipids (d) carbohydrates Q15. Compound having phenyl propanoid origin is called (a) an alkaloid (b) aterpene (c) a lignin (d) a flavonoid Q16. An isobaric process occurs at (a) constant temperature (b) constant pressure (c) constant volume (d) changing pressure Q17. On which one of the following conservative laws, does a rocket work? (a) Mass (b) Energy (c) Linear momentum (d) Angular momentum Q18. The most familiar form of radiant energy in sunlight that causes tanning and sunburning of human skin, is called (a) ultraviolet radiation (b) visible radiation

MockTime.com (c) infrared radiation (d) microwave radiation Q19. The blackboard seems black because it (a) reflects every colour (b) does not reflect any colour (c) absorbs black colour (d) reflects black colour

Q20. After rising a short distance the smooth column of smoke from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an obstacle breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow irregular velocity components transverse to the flow direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by moving ships the sound produced by whistling and by wind instruments. These examples are the results of (a) laminar flow of air (b) streamline flow of air (c) turbulent flow of air (d) viscous flow at low speed Q21. Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts (a) light energy into electrical energy (b) electrical energy into light energy (c) thermal energy into light energy (d) mechanical energy into electrical energy Q22. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be (a) either plane or convex (b) plane only (c) concave (d) convex only Q23. An electron and a proton are circulating with same speed in circular paths of equal radius. Which one among the following will happen, if the mass of a proton is about 2,000 times that of an electron? (a) The centripetal force required by the electron is about 2,000 times more than that required by the proton (b) The centripetal force required by the proton is about 2,000 times more than that required by the electron

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(c) No centripetal force is required for any charged particle (d) Equal centripetal force acts on both the particles as they rotate in the same circular path Q24. A remote control gadget (for TV etc.) has in it (a) A small electromagnet, that emits electromagnetic waves (b) A small oscillator that emits electric pulses (c) A small transmitter that emits infrared signals (d) None of these Q25. Consider the following two statements: 1.A skydiver can alter his terminal velocity of fall. 2.Terminal velocity depends on the position of fall. Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q26. Some pairs of devices and associated energy changes are given below: 1.Electric Motor—Electrical to Mechanical 2.Electrical Generator—Mechanical to Electrical 3.Diesel Engine— Light to Electrical 4.Solar Cell - Chemical to Mechanical Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 3 and 4 (b) l and 3 (c) land 2 (d) 2 and 4 Q27. Consider the following statements regarding a motor car battery: 1.The voltage is usually 12 V. 2.Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid. 3.Electrodes are lead and copper. 4.Capacity is expressed in ampere-hour. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Q28. Distances of air and sea travel are measured in units of nautical mile. One nautical mile equals:

MockTime.com (1)1.6 mile (2) 1.158 mile (3) 1.852 km Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Q29. Consider the following statements 1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q30. Who is the Chairman of second Administrative Reforms Commission? (a) Bimal Jalan (b) Dr Karan Singh (c) M Veerappa Moily (d) Ahmed Patel Q31. In which one of the following Minsitries the census organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961? (a) Health and Family Welfare (b) Home Affairs (c) Social Justice and Empowerment (d) Human Resource Development Q32. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is (a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the House (b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House (c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House (d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House Q33. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India? (a) Right to Information (b) Right to Education (c) Right to Work (d) Right to Housing

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Q34. Formal or procedural democracy does not by any means guarantee (a) political and civil rights (b) constitutionalism (c) the rule of law (d) absence of caste discrimination Q35. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct? 1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially. 2. Write of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only I (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q36. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession Q37. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help? (a) Women in democracies have equal degree of political representation in legislatures (b) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and are always treated with respect (c) Women in democracies are not subjected sex discrimination in most aspects of social life (d) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity Q38. Which one among the following writs literally means you many have the body? (a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Mandamus (d) Quo Warranto Q39. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with

MockTime.com diverse functions. Which one among the following is not a function of the Parl iament of India? (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people (b) Executing major policy decisions (c) Holding the government accountable for its actions and expenditure (d) Amending the Constitution Q40. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the welfare of the Schedule Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall 1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control. 2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q41. Consider the following statements about democracy 1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the people. 2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. 3. Each vote has one value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 Q42. Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System? (a) Dual citizenship (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments (c) Supremacy of the Constitution (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution Q43. One of the following is not the function of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (a) to investigate into all matters relating to their safeguards as provided in Constitution (b) to enquire into specific complaints denying their rights

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(c) to help increase their representation in legislative bodies (d) to advise on the planning process of their socioeconomic development. Q44. Consider the following statements: 1.A Panchayat elected after dissolution does not enjoy the full period but remains in office for the remaining period. 2.For Panchayats, seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, women but not for backward classes of citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q45. Which one of the following vitamins helps in clotting of blood? (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B6 (c) Vitamin-D (d) Vitamin Q46. Dim-vision in the evening and night results from the deficiency of which one of the following? (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-E (c) Vitamin-B12 (d) Vitamin-C Q47. Which one of the following is responsible for converting milk into curd? (a) Fungi (b) Bacteria (c) Virus (d) None of these Q48. Which one of the following characteristics is common among parrot, platypus and kangaroo? (a) Oviparity (b) Toothless jaws (c) Homothermy (d) Functional postanal tail Q49. Match the following List I(Mineral) - List II (Major Source) A. Iron 1.Banana, date B. Potassium 2. Palak C. Iodine

MockTime.com 3.Iodized common salt D. Calcium 4.Milk, egg Codes A B C D (a) 2314 (b) 2314 (c) 4312 (d) 4132 Q50. Which among the following are the major reasons behind preferring eucalyptus tree in the planned forestation process? 1.Plantation grows very fast. 2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile. 3.Wood from eucalyptus tree is easily converted into the pulp for paper industry. Select the correct answer using the codesgiven below. (a) 1 and2 (b) 1 and3 (c) 2 and3 (d) All of these Q51. Due to contraction of eyeball, a longsighted eye can see only (a) farther objects which is corrected by using convex lens (b) farther objects which is corrected by using concave lens (c) nearer objects which is corrected by usi ng convex lens (d) nearer objects which is corrected by using concave lens Q52. Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many arctic birds and fishes. However, under natural conditions, no one found polar bears predating any penguin. This is because (a) penguins have chemical substance in their muscles which is toxic to polar bears (b) penguins are gregarious and always move in groups. Therefore, a polar bear cannot approach them (c) polar bears and penguins never coexist under natural conditions. The former lives in the North Pole while the latter lives in the South Pole (d) polar bears and penguins display symbiotic relationships and they help each other for their existence in the ice-cold ecosystem Q53. The gastrointestinal hormones namely secretin and cholecystokinin secreted by duodenal epithelium activate respectively which organs to discharge their secretions?

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(a) Pancreas and gall bladder (b) Gall bladder and stomach (c) Pancreas and stomach (d) Stomach and small intestine Q54. In a forest, animals like voles and woodlice feed on plant roots and barks respectively. Among the other carnivores, foxes, shrews and owls are present in that forest. Following predictions are made by a group of observers who have visited the forest. 1.If the roots of the tree develop a disease, then voles and foxes will starve and not the owls. 2. Population of voles is dependent on wood lice population through food web. 3.If owl population declines, it will indirectly affect wood lice population. 4.If barks of tree are affected due to a disease, then reduction of wood lice will affect the shrew population forcing owls to eat more voles. Which of the above predictions is/are correct? (a) 1,2, and4 (b) Only3 (c) 1 and2 (d) Only2 Q55. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Sandal wood plant: Partial root parasite (b) Cuscuta: Parasite (c) Nepenthes: Carnivorous (d) Mushrooms: Autotroph Q56. Which one of the following glands in the human body stores iodine? (a) Parathyroid (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal Q57. Consider the following statements 1. The current global economic crisis owes its genesis to the subprime crisis in the United States. 2. The Indian economy is showing a faster recovery from the economic crisis than its western counterparts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

MockTime.com Q58. When the productive capacity of the economic systems of a state is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs, it is called (a) seasonal unemployment (b) structural unemployment (c) disguised unemployment (d) cyclical unemployment Q59. Which one among the following is not a salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012? (a) For spending the amount earmarked for corporate social responsibility, the company shall give preferences to local areas where it operates (b) Punishment for falsely inducing a person to enter into an agreement with bank or financial institution with a view to obtaining credit facilities (c) There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor (d) 'Independent directors' shall be excluded for the purpose of computing 'one-third of retiring directors' Q60. Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as Per Capita Income grew over time in last sixty years because (a) people have been purchasing less food (b) people have been preferring non-cereal items in their food basket (c) growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income (d) percentage of the poor in population has increased over time Q61. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. If increase in demand and supply are of equal magnitude, the price will remain unchanged, but the equilibrium quantity will increase. 2. If increase in demand is of greater magnitude than increase in supply, both equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity will increase. 3. If increase in supply is of greater magnitude than increase in demand, equilibrium price will fall but equilibrium quantity will increase. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only I (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only

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(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q62. Consider the following statements in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG): 1.CAG is appointed by the President of India and can be removed only on grounds and procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court Judge 2.The form in which accounts of the centre and states are to be kept is prescribed by CAG. 3.Reports on the accounts of the states are submitted to the President who shall cause these to be placed before the Parliament. (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) land 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q63. Which of the following is not one of the features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) being set up for promoting exports? (a) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory for trade operations, duties and tariff. (b) No license is required for import into the zone. (c) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry without visa restrictions. (d) There will be no routine examination by customs authorities of import-export cargo. Q64. Consider the following statements in relation to the National Investment Fund (NIF) 2006: (a) will consist of proceeds from disinvestment of government equity in PSUs. (b) It would be maintained outside the Consolidated Fund of India. (c) The Fund will be used to finance selected social sector schemes. (d) Some portion of the Fund will also be utilized for investment in loss making PSUs. Q65. Reducing infant mortality helps control the growth of population by: (a) controlling repeated child birth to compensate for the mortality (b) protecting the health of the mother (c) increasing the gap between two births (d) preventing the tendency to choose the sex of the prenatal child Q66. The Sen Measure of Poverty Line is said to measure the distribution of welfare rather

MockTime.com than merely the distribution of wealth in a society because: (a) it measures the energy requirements of a household (b) it defines poverty in terms of a minimum level of living (c) it seeks to measure the income shortfall of each person in the poverty line (d) it prescribes a universal standard of wellbeing applicable the world over Q67. The net profit earned by the Central Public Sector Units (PSUs) during the last four decades averages to (a) 2 percent of the capital employed (b) 10 percent of the capital employed (c) 5 percent of the capital employed (d) 1 percent of the capital employed Q68. Theory of Development holds that: (a) global prosperity spreads to domestic economy (b) development spreads downwards through greater demand for labour (c) rate of growth of an economy is inversely proportional to the rates of taxation (d) none of the above Q69. In which one of the following sessions was the Indian National Congress split into moderates and extremists? (a) Nagpur (b) Allahabad (c) Surat (d) Calcutta

Q70. Who among the following was not a party to the league that was defeated by the British in the Battle of Buxar? (a) Shuja-ud-daulah (b) Shah Alam (c) Mir Jafar (d) Mir Kasim Q71. The head of a district (Ahara), the principal coordinator of the revenue and the officer incharge of general and military functions in his jurisdiction during Mauryan empire was known as (a) Krori (b) Rajuka

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(c) Foujdar (d) Chirastadar Q72. Which among the following was not one of the provisions of the ‗Communal Award‘? (a) Member of the depressed classes were assigned reserved seats and separate electorates (b) Separate electorates for the Muslims (c) Separate electorates for the Europeans and the Sikhs (d) The separate electorates were to lapse at the end of 10 years Q73. ‗Dyarchy‘ was first introduced in India under (a) Morley-Minto reforms (b) Montford reforms (c) Simon Commision plan (d) Government of India Act, 1935 Q74. Consider the following statements about the NonCooperation Movement 1. The movement was a mixture of nationalism, middle class politics, religion, feudalism, agrarian discontent and working class agitation. 2. The movement was much greater in intensity than any other political agitation which came before it. 3. The movement helped to foster HinduMuslim unity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q75. Consider the following passage and identify the three tribal principalities referred to there, in using the codes given below In the early history of the far South in India, three tribal principalities are mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions of the 3rd century BC and in Kharavela inscription of the 1st century BC. (a) Vakatakas, Cholas and Satvahanas (b) Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras (c) Ikshvakus, Vakatakas and Pandyas (d) Pallavas, Cholas and Pandyas Q76. The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar draws attention of scientists due to its (a) antiquity (b) glitter (c) hardness (d) rustlessness

MockTime.com Q77. Who among the following scholars were contemporary of Kanishka? 1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna 3. Vasumitra 4. Chanakya Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q78. Consider the following statements about the European travellers to India 1. Sir Thomas Roe, the Representative of the East India Company, was granted the permission by Jahangir to open a factory at Surat. 2. Captain Hawkins was driven out from Agra by the Mughals at the instigation of Portuguese. 3. Father Monserrate travelled with Akbar on his journey to Kashmir. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q79. Consider the following statements about Shivaji‘s military acumen 1. He was a master in guerrilla tactics and swift cavalry warfare. 2. He had built a series of fortified strongholds on the table mountains of the Western Deccan. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q80. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that 1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers. 2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth. 3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge.

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4. Alauddin promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Maliknaib or Vice-Regent of the empire. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above Q81. Sangam literature formed a very important source for the reconstruction of the history of South India. It was written in (a) Tamil (b) Kannada (c) Telugu (d) Malayalam Q82. The only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has been found at (a) Sanchi (b) Amaravati (c) Kanaganahalli (d) Ajanta Q83. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by (a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie (b) Sir John Shore (c) Andrew Fraser (d) John Marshall Q84. Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism? (a) Historical Materialism (b) Dialectical Materialism (c) Alienation and Class Struggle (d) Individual Freedom Q85. The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of the followng states? (a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu Q86. Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian sandard time? (a) 85.5° E (b) 86.5° E (c) 84.5° E (d) 82.5° E Q87. A collection of gas dust which appears as a bright ball of light in the sky with a glowing tail is called

MockTime.com (a) Star (b) Comet (c) Constellation (d) Galaxy Q88. The pacific Islands from new Guinea South East-wards to the Fiji Islands' group is called (a) The Polynesia (b) The Mellanesia (c) The Micronesia (d) The Autralasia Q89. Tsunamis are not caused by (a) hurricanes (b) Earthquakes (c) undersea landslides (d) volcanic eruptions Q90. Which one of the following statements on biosphere reserves is not correct? (a) In 1973, UNESCO launched a worldwide programme on man and biosphere (b) Biosphere reserves promote research on ecological conservation (c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in Madhya pradesh (d) Biosphere reserves are multipurpose protected areas to preserve the genetic diversity in ecosystems Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of increasing velocity of wind? (a) Light breeze-Fresh breeze-Gale-Hurricane (b) Fresh breeze-Light breeze-Hurricane-Gale (c) Light breeze-Gale-Fresh breeze-Hurricane (d) Hurricane-Light breeze-Gale-Fresh breeze Q92. What is the similarity between Milwaukee Deep, Java Trench and Challenger Deep? (a) They all are trenches in the Pacific Ocean (b) They are the deepest points of the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans, respectively (c) They all are trenches in the India Ocean (d) They all are deeps of the Atlantic Ocean Q93. Mr X has been invited to participate in a conference to be held at Buenos Aires. He has choosen the following shortest flight route Mumbai to Frankfurt (non-stop) Frankfurt to Sao Paulo (non-stop) Sao Paulo to Buenos Aires (non-stop) Which one of the following seas will likely to be flown over by Mr X? (a) Tasman Sea

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(b) Labrador Sea (c) Beautfort Sea (d) Black Sea Q94. Climate change resulting in the rise of temperature may benefit which of the countries/regions? (a) South Africa (b) East Indies islands comprising of Java, Sumatra and Borneo (c) The Western coasts of South America (d) Russia and Northern Europe Q95. Which one among the following is not a landlocked country in Africa? (a) Botswana (b) Zambia (c) Lesotho (d) Nigeria Q96. Rain bearing clouds look black because (a) all light is scattered by them (b) the large number of water droplets in them absorb all the sunlight (c) they reflect the sunlight back into the atmosphere (d) there is a lot of dust condensed on the water vapour in such clouds Q97. Sargasso sea is characterised by (a) very cold water (b) very warm water (c) highly saline water (d) typical marine vegetation Q98. On which one among the following island, does the Negrito tribe called 'the On ge' live? (a) North Andaman (h) Little Andaman (b) Little Nicobar (c) Great Nicobar (d) Q99. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are responsible for acid rains? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Oxides of carbon Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q100. Which one among the following African countries is not landlocked?

MockTime.com (a) Zambia (b) Uganda (c) Angola (d) Zimbabwe Q101. Match the following Lis t I (Irrigation/Power Projects) List II (River) A. Bhakra Nangal B. Dul Hasti C. Hirakund D. Tehri -1. Bhagirathi -2. Mahanadi -3. Chandra -4. Sutlej Codes A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 Q102. Which one of the following is the example of subsistence farming? (a) Shifting cultivation (b) Commercial farming (c) Extensive and intensive farming (d) Organic farming Q103. Who among the following have won the Nobel Prize for Economics in 2007? 1. Eric S Maskin 2. Roger B Myerson 3. Hu Jintao 4. Leonid Hurwicz Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 Q104. In appreciation of his environmental research and campaigns, space agency NASA has recently named a minor planet after whom among the following? (a) Sainudeen Pattazhy (b) Anil Agarwal (c) Sunita Narayan (d) RK Pachauri Q105. The following figure shows the proportion of the population for four years in various age groups in percentage 1971 1981 1991 2001 0 to 14 years 42.03 35.57 37.5 35.44 15 to 29 years 23.97 25.90 26.7 26 65 30 to 64 years 28.03 28.04 29 30.44 65 years and 5.97 6.49 6.80 7.47 above Based on the information provided above identify the state of dependency ratio from 1971 to 2001.

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(a) It has increased (b) It has decreased (c) It has remained constant (d) It has fluctuating tendency Q106. Consider the following statements 1. The Walker Cup is associated with Golf. 2. The event is contested biennially in odd numbered years. 3. The teams contesting the trophy comprising the leading amateur golfers of the United Kingdom and Great Britain and Ireland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q107. In the assembly polls that took place in three states in October 2009, the Indian National Congress got absolute majority in (a) all the three States of Maharashtra, Haryana and Arunachal Pradesh (b) Maharashtra and Arunachal Pradesh (c) Haryana and Maharashtra (d) Arunachal Pradesh only Q108. On which one of the following grounds, in August 2009, Scottish authorities released to return home Abdel Basset al Megrahi, a former Libyan agent, jailed for life for the bombing of Pan Am Flight 103 on December 1988 that killed 270 people, most of whom were US nationals? (a) UN requested the Scottish authorities to release him (b) He was dying of cancer (c) Charges against him could not be established in the Scottish Court of Law (d) US granted pardon to him Q109. Cloud computing refers to (a) any type of computer network that is wireless and is associated with telecommunication network whose interconnections between nodes is implemented without the use of wires. (b) telecommunication technology which provides data in a variety of ways from point to point links to ful mobile cellular type access. (c) a cutting edge open specification that enables short range wireless connection between desktop and notebook computers,

MockTime.com mobile handsets, camera phones, headsets, even a computer mouse. (d) internet based service whereby shared resources, software and information are provided to computers and other devices on demand. Q110. Which one among the following is not true regarding the draft National Food Security Bill? (a) Every BPL family in the country shall be entitled to 25 kg of wheat or rice per month at `3 per kg (b) The distribution will be on universal entitlement by ensuring coverage of every adult under the public distribution scheme (c) The Central Government shall allocate required quantity of wheat and/or rice from the central pool to State Governments, which will be distributed through fair shops (d) The draft Bill has been cleared by the empowered group of Ministers for discussion in the Cabinet Q111. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? [2011-I] 1. Kiran MKll: Aerobatic aircraft 2. MI 35: Attack helicopter 3. Mirage 2000: Military transport aircraft (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q112. Consider the following statements about National Knowledge Commission 1. It is an advisory body to the Prime Minister constituted as per the provisions of the Constitution of India. 2. Mr Sam Pitroda is the Chairman of the Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q113. Which one among the following statements is correct? The Current Prime Minister of Nepal Dr Baburam Bhattarai is heading a (a) Consensus Government of all major political parties of Nepal (b) Nepali Congress Maoist UML coalition Government

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(c) Nepali Congress Maoist coalition Government (d) Maoist Madhesi coalition Government Q114. The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as, International Year of Chemistry to mark the 100 years of Nobel Prize winning by Madam Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry-our life, our future. 2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only I (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q115. Consider the following statements about Viswanathan Anand 1. He has won the World Chess Championship five times. 2. He is the first sports person to receive the Padma Vibhushan Award. 3. He is currently the Number 1 rating player on the FIDE Ratings. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these Q116. The President of India on 20th November, 2012 released a commemorative postage stamp on the occasion of Ramgopal Maheshwari's birth centenary year celebration. Which of the following statements regarding Ramgopal Maheshwari is/are correct? 1. He is regarded as a doyen of journalism in India. 2. He was a trusted aid of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and helped him in mobilising the forces of Indian National Army in Kohima. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q117. Consider the following statements

MockTime.com 1. ISRO has recently given clearance for using the frequency from KU band for using the satellite for internet in trains in India. 2. KU frequency range is allocated to be exclusively used by satellite communication system. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q118. On March 8, 2013 President of India has released a commemorative postage stamp on late Sahir Ludhianvi at Rashtrapati Bhawan. Ludhianvi was (a) the translator of the Omar Khayyam's Rubaiyat into Hindi (b) an eminent social activist of India (c) one of the top Urdu dramatists and actor (d) widely acclaimed as a peoples poet Q119. Which of the following is not correct regarding the 2014 FIFA Football World Cup? (a) 'We Are One' is the official song (b) 'Dar um Jeito (We Will Find A Way)' is the official anthem (c) Brazil is the first country to host a World Cup for the second time (d) For the first time two consecutive World Cups are not hosted in Europe Q120. The 3rd Meeting of the SAARC Culture Ministers, convened in New Delhi on September 25, 2014, unanimously resolved 1. to declare 2015 - 16 as the SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage. 2. that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital for 2015 -16. 3. to promote SAARC culture online by launching a dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis on digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books and other articles of intangible cultural value. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. d

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59. C 60. c 61. D 62. d 63. c 64. d 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. b 72. d 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. d 77. d 78. d 79. c 80. c 81. a 82. c 83. a 84. c 85. d 86. d 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. d 95. d 96. a 97. b 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. d 110. b 111. b 112. b 113. a 114. a 115. b 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. c 120. c 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Reverse osmosis method is used to obtain pure water from water containing a salt or for desalination of sea water. 6. Water has the maximum density among these because chloroform, benzene and ice float on water. 7. Automobile batteries are usually lead-acid type, and are made of six galvanic cells in series to provide a12- volt system. Each cell provides2.1 volts for a total of12.6 volts at full charge. Lead-acid batteries are made up of plates of lead and separate plates of lead dioxide, which are submerged into anelectrolyte solution of about38% sulfuric acid and62% water. This causes a chemical reaction that releases electrons, allowing them to flow through conductors to produce electricity. As the battery discharges, the acid of the electrolyte reacts with the materials of the plates, changing their surface to lead sulfate. When the battery is recharged, the chemical reaction is reversed: the lead sulfate reforms into lead dioxide and lead. With the plates restored to their original condition, the process may now be repeated. 8. Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid in the ratio of 1: 3. It is a very powerful oxidising mixture and hence, used to clean the surface of gold ornaments. 9. Air would expand the most on being heated. 10. Except 11. Magnesium burns a very bright white, so it is used to add white sparks or improve the overall brilliance of a firework. 12. Silica and aluminium are the two main constituents of granite. Granite contains7077% of silica and11-13% of aluminium in the form of (Al2O3). 13. Milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide) is most commonly found as a liquid. The

MockTime.com magnesium in the liquid can both neutralize excess stomach acid to treat indigestion. 14. 15. 16. 17. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum. 18. The tanning and sun burning of human skin is due to the harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun. 19. Blackboard absorbs all the colours of light falling on it and does not reflect any colour due to which it appears black. 20. Turbulent flow is accompanied by random, irregular, local circular currents called vortices. 21. Light Emitting Diode (LED) is semiconductor device – a forward bias p-n junction diode which converts electrical energy into light energy. 22. Image formed by a plane and a convex mirror is always erect. Concave mirror forms image both erect and inverted depends on the position of the object from the mirror. 23. Centripetal force = 2 mv r Given that, Mass of proton = 2000 × mass of electron Radius and speed is same for both proton and electron \ Centripetal force a mass Since mass of proton is 2000 times that of mass of electron, hence the centripetal force required by proton is about 2000 times more than that required by the electron. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission was initially set up under the Chairmanship of Mr. Veerappa Moily, who resigned with effect from 1st April 2009. He was succeeded by V. Ramachandran. The Commission was to prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. 31. The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. 32. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be onetenth of the total number of members of the Houses. 33. The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution

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of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. This is recognized in the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights as a human right that includes the right to free, compulsory primary education for all. 34. Procedural democracy is a democracy in which the people or citizens of the state have less influence than in traditional liberal democracies. This type of democracy is characterized by voters choosing to elect representatives in free elections. Procedural democracy is quite different from substantive democracy, which is manifested by equal participation of all groups in society in the political process.Namibia, Angola, and Mozambique are examples of examples of procedural democracies. 35. If a lower court or tribunal gives its decision but based on wrong jurisdiction the affected party can move this writ to a higher court like supreme court or High Court. The writ of certiorari issued to subordinate judicial or quasi judicial body when they act. · Without or in excess of jurisdiction · In violation of the prescribed procedure · In contravention of principles of natural justice · Resulting in an error of law apparent on the face of record. 36. The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. 37. Right to Equality refers to the equality in the eyes of law, discarding any unfairness on grounds of caste, race, religion, place of birth and sex. It provides equal right to women. 38. Habeas corpus writs literally means you should have the body. It is writ that a person may seek from a court to obtain immediate release from an unlawful confinement. 39. Our Parliamentary system blends the legislative and the executive organs of the State in as much as the executive power i s wielded by a group of Members of the Legislature who command majority in the Lok Sabha. 40. The main functions of the Committee are to consider all matters concerning the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, falling within the purview of the Union Government and the Union Territories, to consider the reports submitted by the

MockTime.com National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and to examine the measures taken by the Union Government to secure due representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in services and posts under its control. 41. Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers. In a democracy only leaders elected by the people can rule the country. A democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. Each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. 42. Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political system. The Indian Constitution does not allow dual citizenship. Automatic loss of Indian citizenship covered in Section 9(1) of the Citizenship act 1955, provides that any citizen of India who by naturalisation or registration acquires the citizenship of another country shall cease to be a citizen of India. Indian Government has started OCI (Overseas citizen of India) Scheme in 2005.According to the scheme if you are already a Person of Indian origin (POI) and have taken up citizenship abroad, you can take up benefits of OCI scheme, which gives you the same travel and residence privileges like other Indians but you are not allowed to vote and take up jobs in Government sector. 43. 44. 45. Vitamin-K adds in blood clotting. Vitamin-K acts as an essential cofactor for factor-II, VII, IX, X and also for proteins Z, C and S. 46. Deficiency of vitamin-A (ratinol) creates night blindness. It also creates keratomalacia, xerosis cornea and Bitot‘s spot. High content of vitamin-A is got from sheeps lever and butter. 47. Curd is made due to the chemical reaction between lactic acid bacteria and casein. 48. The parrot, platypus and kangaroo fall in the group of warm blooded animals. They show homothermy. 49. Palak (Spinach) has5% non-haeme iron. One banana possesses422 mg potassium. One cup of dates possesses464 mg potassium. One cup milk has276 mg calcium. One egg possesses30 mg calcium. One kg packet of iodized common salt has15 mg iodine.

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50. Eucalyptus growth is very fast and the stem is raw material used for pulp and paper industry. 51. The contraction of eyeball brings about in a longsighted eye. To see the nearby objects, a convex lense is used. 52. Polar bears and penguins live in different polar regions i.e. polar bears live in the North Pole while the penguins live in Antartica (the Southern Hemisphere). 53. Secretin and cholecystokinnin activate pancreas and gall bladder to discharge their secretions. 54. If owl population decreases, it will indirectly affect wood lice population. If owl population will decrease, the population of wood lice increases. Reason is that owl is not present to eat the wood lice population. 55. Cuscuta (dodder) is a genus of about100170 species of yellow, orange or red (rarely green)parasitic plants. 56. Thyroid gland in human body contains iodine. Deficiency of iodine creates goitre disease. Which is observed by the enlargement of larynx. 57. 58. Cyclical unemployment is unemployment that results when the overall demand for goods and services in an economy cannot support full employment. It occurs during periods of slow economic growth or during periods of economic contraction. 59. As per amendment in Clause 141, the limit in respect of maximum number of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor has been proposed as twenty companies. 60. Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as per capita income grew over time in last sixty years because growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. The battle of Buxar was fought between British East India Company and combined forces of Mir Qasim,The Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam II(Mughal Emperor) . Mir Jafar

MockTime.com was not a party to the league that was defeated by the British in this war. 71. In Districtadministration each district was administered by 3 officers viz. Pradeshika, Rajuka, & Yukta. Pradeshika was senior and Rajuka was subordinate. Yukta was subordinate to both of them. The district administration was under the charge of Rajukas, whose position and functions are similar to modern collectors. He was assisted by Yuktas or subordinate officials. The rajjuka was responsible for surveying and assessing the land, fixing its rent and record keeping besides judicial functions. 72. On August 16, 1932, the British Prime Minister McDonald announced the Communal Award. The Communal Award was basically a proposal on minority representation.Important proposals were as follows: • The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were to be doubled. • The system of separate electorates for the minorities was to be retained. • The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to be granted a weightage. • Except NWFP, 3% seats for women were to be reserved in all provinces. • The depressed, dalits or the untouchables were to be declared as minorities. • Allocation was to be made to labours, landlords, traders and industrialists. 73. Dyarchy was a system of double government introduced by British India. 74. Noncooperation movement, (September 1920-February 1922) , was organized by Gandhiji to induce the British government of India to grant self-government, or swaraj, to India. Noncooperation was agreed to by the Indian National Congress at Calcutta in September 1920 and launched that December. The movement was to be nonviolent and to consist of the resignations of titles; the boycott of government educational institutions, the courts, government services, foreign goods, and elections; and the eventual refusal to pay taxes. 75. The Pillar Edicts are divided into: Major Rock Edicts: 14 Edicts (termed 1st to 14th) and 2 separate ones found in Odisha Minor Rock Inscriptions: Minor Rock Edicts, the Queen's Edict, Barabar Caves inscriptions and the Kandahar bilingual inscription. In these Edicts there were three South Indian states described as Cholas, Pandayas, Cheras.

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76. The ironpillar near Qutub Minar highlights ancient India's achievements in metallurgy. The pillar is made of 98 per cent wrought iron and has stood 1,600 years without rusting or decomposing. 77. Kanishka, was the emperor of the Kushan dynasty in 127-151 A.D;famous for his military, political, and spiritual achievements. Some of the scholars in the Court of Kanishka were Parsva, Vasumitra, Asvaghosa, Nagarjuna, Charaka and Mathara.. 78. Sir Thomas Roe was sent by James I in 1615. He reached Surat in September 1615 and proceeded to Ajmer where Jahangir was. He remained at the court of Jahangir from 1615 to 1618.Father Monserrate travelled with Akbar on his journey to Kashmir. 79. Shiva Ji innovated military tactics, pioneering the guerrilla warfare methods (Shiva sutra or ganimi kava) , which leveraged strategic factors like geography, speed, and surprise and focused pinpoint attacks to defeat his larger and more powerful enemies.Shivaji himself constructed about 15-20 new forts (including key sea forts like Sindhudurg) , but he also rebuilt or repaired many strategically placed forts to create a chain of 300 or more, stretched over a thousand kilometres across the rugged crest of the Western Ghats. 80. Malik Kafur was the slave general of Sultan Alauddin Khilji who had won for him the Deccan territories of Warangal, Devgiri, Madura and Dwarasamudra, etc. Malik Kafur was originally a Hindu slave who fell into the hands of the Muslims at Cambay after the conquest of Gujarat. Alauddin's general Nusrat Khan had paid 1,000 dinars to buy him and that is why Malik Kafur is also known as the "Hazardinari. 81. The poems belonging to the Sangam literature were composed by Tamil poets. 82. Ashoka's only inscribed stone portrait was found at kanaganahalli, near Bhima river In Gulbarg district, Karnataka. 83. The ruins were brought to light by an engineer and antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie (Surveyor General of India) in 1800 AD. 84. Alienation and Class Struggle are the tenets of Capitalism. 85. Coonoor hill station is situated in Nilgiris district of Tamilnadu.

MockTime.com 86. Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5° E longitude in Shankargarh Fort mirzapur (Allahabad). 87. Comet is a celestial object consisting of a nucleus of ice and dust and, when near the sun, a 'tail' of gas and dust particles pointing away from the sun. 88. Mellanesia region consists of the four countries of Vanuatu, Solomon Islands, Fiji and Guinea. It is a sub-region of Oceania extending from the western end of the Pacific Ocean to the Arafura Sea, and eastward to Fiji. Besides these independent countries, Melanesia also includes New Caledonia, Maluku Islands and West Papua. 89. Tsunami is not caused by hurricanes. 90. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in Uttarakhand. It was inscribed a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1988. 91. The correct sequence is Light breezeFresh breezeGale-Hurricane. 92. They are the deepest points of the Atlantic,India and Pacific Oceanrespectively. Milwaukee Deep is the deepest part of the Atlantic Ocean. Java Trench is located in the northeastern Indian Ocean. The Challenger Deep is located in the Pacific Ocean. 93. Mr X will likely to be flown over Black Sea. Since Black Sea is bounded by Europe, Anatolia and Caucasus, it is ultimately connected to the Atlantic Ocean. 94. Climate change benefits Russia and Northern Europe as they are in colder region. 95. Nigeria is not a landlocked country in Africa. Its coast in the south lies on the Gulf of Guinea in the Atlantic Ocean. 96. If the object does not reflect any colour, it appearsblack. The tiny droplets of water in rain clouds scatter the white light of the sun. Red is scattered first, and violet the last. This happens at such a high altitude that no rays of the sun reach the bottom of the cloud. Thus, we do not see the rays of the sun and this results in a dark effect. 97. The Sargasso Sea is a strange and a unique creation of the nature. The sea area which is some 700 miles wide, 2000 miles long and located in the North Atlantic has no shores. The island of Bermuda is located on its western fringes. The northern region contains warm water known as eighteen degree water that moves outwards along the surface of the sea, allowing it to maintain that temperature year round whereas coastal waters with the same latitudes freeze in the winter. The Sargasso Sea was named after a

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kind of seaweed which lazily floats over its entire expanse called sargassum. 98. The onges, a negrito tribe is inhabiting the Little Andaman Island in Andaman District. The Onges are pure huntergatherers. They are not aware of agriculture. 99. Acid rain is a result of air pollution. Some gases especially nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide react with the tiny droplets of water in clouds to form sulphuric and nitric acids. The rain from these clouds then falls as very weak acid which is known as "acid rain". 100. Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala. Kanha National Park is one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest national park of Madhya Pradesh. The Sariska Tiger Reserve is an Indian national park located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan. Dachigam National Park is located in Jammu and Kashmir. 101. is correct 102. Subsistence Farming is a type of farming in which most of the produce (subsistence crop) is consumed by the farmer and his family, leaving little or nothing to be marketed. 103. The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel 2007 was awarded jointly to Leonid Hurwicz, Eric S. Maskin and Roger B. Myerson "for having laid the foundations of mechanism design theory". 104. The US space agency NASA has named a 'minor' planet after a Kerala zoology professor Sainudeen Pattazhy. The minor planet '5178 CD4' has been named after him. The minor planet will now be known as '5178 Pattazhy. 105. 106. The Walker Cup is a golf trophy contested biennially in odd numbered years between teams comprising the leading amateur golfers of the United States and Great Britain and Ireland. 107. 108. 109. Cloud computing refers to applications and services offered over the Internet. The idea of the "cloud" simplifies the many network connections and computer systems involved in online services. Examples of cloud computing include online backup services, social networking services and personal data services.

MockTime.com 110. The Empowered Group of Ministers recently cleared the draft National Food Security Bill, 2011 which aims to cover 67.5 per cent of India's 120 crore people including three-fourth of the rural population and half the people in urban areas. The Bill proposes free foodgrain for the very vulnerable sections and foodgrain at subsidised rates for households categorised as 'priority' and 'general' under the targeted public distribution system. 111. Kiran MK 11: Aerobatic aircraft MI 35: Attack helicopter Mirage 2000: Jet fighter aircraft 112. The National Knowledge Commission is a high-level advisory body to the Prime Minister of India with the objective of transforming India into a knowledge society. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was constituted on 13th June 2005 with a time-frame of three years from 2nd October 2005 to 2nd October 2008. 113. Dr. Baburam Bhattarai was the 35th Prime Minister of Nepal from August 2011 to March 2013. He was heading a consensus government of all major parties of Nepal. 114. The International Year of Chemistry 2011 (IYC 2011) was a year-long commemorative event for the achievements of chemistry and its contribution to humankind. Events for the year were coordinated by IUPAC, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry and by UNESCO. The theme of IYC2011 was "Chemistry-our life, our future." It focused on the achievements of chemistry and its contributions to the well-being of humankind. 115. 116. Ramgopal Maheshwari was a freedom fighter and a social worker is also regarded as a doyen of Journalism in India. He was a person who worked for promotion of Hindi Language. During the Indian freedom struggle, he took the responsibility to mobilize central India and started a Hindi daily newspaper namely 'Nava Bharat' in the year 1934 from Nagpur. 117. 118. Sahir Ludhianvi was a popular Urdu poet who wrote for Hindi films. 119. Mexico, Italy, France, Germany and Brazil have hosted the event on two occasions. Mexico City's Estadio Azteca and Rio de Janeiro's Maracanã are the only

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venues ever to have hosted two FIFA World Cup finals. 120. Delhi Resolution unanimously resolved• to declare 2016-17 as the SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage. • that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital and the inauguration ceremony of Bamiyan as SAARC cultural capital will take place in April 2015. • to promote SAARC culture online by launching a dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis on digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books and other articles of intangible cultural value.

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CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Environmental degradation is the deterioration of the environment through 1.Depletion of resources such as air, water and soil 2.Destruction of ecosystems 3.Progressive increase in wild life 4.Extinction of wild life (a) 1,2,3 (b) 1,2,4 (c) 1 only (d) 2, 4 only Q2. Paclitaxel employed in treating breast and ovarian cancer was derived from: (a) Polar bear (b) Pacific Yew tree (c) Cetaceans (d) Pine tree Q3. The Black Death was one of the most devastating pandemics in human history that killed around 60% of Europe‘s population due to: (a) pneumonia (b) b)plague (c) smallpox (d) tuberculosis Q4. To which of the following animals does habitat destruction due to salt activities pose a constant threat? (a) Indian wild ass (b) Estuarine crocodile (c) Dugong (d) Indian bison Q5. Which of the following isotopes of carbon is/are used in carbon dating? (a) 6C12 only (b) 6C13 only (c) 6C14 only (d) 6C12 and6C14 Q6. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution? (a) Potassium nitrate (b) Iodine (c) Iodine chloride (d) Potassium chloride

Q7. The light emitted by firefly is due to (a) a radioactive substance (b) chemiluminiscence process (c) a photoelectric process (d) burning of phosphorus Q8. Statement I: During the setting of cement, the structure has to be cooled by spraying water. Statement II: The constituents of cement undergo hydration during setting of cement and it is an exothermic reaction. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I List II (Acid) (Source) A. Lactic acid - 1 Tamarind B. Tartaric acid - 2 Orange C. Oxalic acid - 3 Tomato D. Citric acid - 4 Sour curd Codes A B C D (a) 2314 (b) 2134 (c) 4312 (d) 4132 Q10. Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the Sun? (a) Fusion reaction (b) Fission reaction (c) Chemical reaction (d) Diffusion reaction Q11. Why hard water does not give lather with soap? (a) Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions which form precipitate with soap (b) Hard water contains sulphate and chloride ions which form precipitate (c) pH of hard water is high (d) pH of hard water is less

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Q12. Consider the following statements. Statement I: Clay layers are poor aquifers. Statement II: The inter-particle space of clay minerals is the least. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Q13. When hard water is evaporated completely, the white solid remains in the container. It may be due to the presence of 1. Carbonates of Ca and Mg 2. Sulphates of Ca and Mg 3. Chlorides of Ca and Mg Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and2 only (b) 1,2 and3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and3 only Q14. Enzymes in living systems 1.provide energy 2.provide immunity 3.transport oxygen 4.catalyze biological reactions The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1,2, and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only Q15. Fat-soluble pigments are (a) tannins (b) lignins (c) alkaloids (d) flavonoids

MockTime.com (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q18. A boy throws four stones of same shape, size and weight with equal speed at different initial angles with the horizontal line. If the angles are 15°, 30°, 45° and 60°, at which angle the stone will cover the maximum horizontally? (a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° Q19. Mr X was advised by an architect to make outer walls of his house with hollow bricks. The correct reason is that such walls (a) make the building stronger (b) help keeping inside cooler in summer and warmer in winter (c) prevent seepage of moisture from outsi de (d) protect the building from lightning

Q20. Which one among the following correctly defines a unit magnetic pole in SI units? It is the pole which when placed in air at a distance of (a) 1 foot from an equal and a similar poled repels it with a force of 1 pound (b) 1 m from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 N (c) 1 cm from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 dyne (d) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 N/m2

Q16. An isenthalpic process occurs at (a) changing temperature (b) constant pressure (c) constant volume (d) constant enthalpy

Q21. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) is used to measure (a) spread of solid tumour (b) bone density (c) ulcerous growth in stomach (d) extent of brain haemorrhage

Q17. Assertion (A): In a pressure cooker food is cooked above boiling point. Reason (R): Boiling point of water increases as the pressure increases.

Q22. The position, relative size and nature of the image formed by a concave lens for an object placed at infinity are respectively

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(a) at focus, diminished and virtual (b) at focus, diminished and real (c) between focus and optical centre, diminished and virtual (d) between focus and optical centre, magnified and real Q23. An object is raised to a height of 3 m from the ground. It is then allowed to fall on to a table 1 m high from ground level. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? (a) Its potential energy decreases by twothirds its original value of total energy. (b) Its potential energy decreases by one-third its original value of total energy. (c) Its kinetic energy increases by two-thirds, while potential energy increases by one-third. (d) Its kinetic energy increases by one-third, while potential energy decreases by one-third. Q24. A body would weigh more at the poles than at the equator because 1.Equatorial radius is greater than polar radius 2.The earth rotates about its axis 3.The poles are covered with thick snow 4.Polar radius is greater than equatorial radius (a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct (c) Only 1 is correct (d) 1,2 and 3 are correct Q25. Consider the following statements: The terminal velocity of an object falling in a viscous medium depends on 1.The coefficient of viscosity of the medium 2.The weight of the object 3.The size of the object Of these statements (a) Only 1 is correct (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Q26. The working principle of a washing machine is: (a) Capillarity (b) Centrifugation (c) Decantation (d) Diffusion Q27. Consider the following statements: 1.The apparent weight of a body floating in a liquid is zero.

MockTime.com 2.The weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed part of the body equals its weight. Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2only Q28. Which of the following units of land area measurement are prevalent in India? (1)Bigha (2)Kanal (3)Kila or keela (4)Katha Which of the above answers is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All four Q29. Who of the following constitutes a Finance Commission for a State in India? (a) The President of India (b) The Governor of the State (c) The Union Finance Minister (d) The Union Cabinet Q30. Assertion (A) An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed be a decree of a Civil Court. Reason (R) Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before any court Codes (a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q31. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India 1. V.V Giri 2. M Hidayatullah 3. BD Jatti 4. GS Pathak Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures? (a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (c) 3, 2, 1,4 (d) 4, 1,3, 2 Q32. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment Act, 1985 as amended in 2003, a legislator attracts disqualification under the 10th Schedule if

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1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected. 2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party. 3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members formed a new group or party in the house. 4. a member who has been elected as a independent member joins any political party. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015 (c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world (d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act DIRECTIONS (Q. No. 107-110): The following questions consist of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below.

Q33. Consider the following statements 1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population and the area of the State. 2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q36. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct? (a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states (c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states (d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states

Q34. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India. 2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be disqualified to contest election. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 Q35. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? (a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore, universally guarantees education to all citizens of India

Q37. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India? (a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighbouring countries (b) To protect monuments of national importance (c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so (d) To know more and more about the history of India Q38. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?

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(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform (b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence (c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (d) To practice family planning and to control population Q39. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts, launched recently in India 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video conferencing. 2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid out for the bench for hearing appeals in an open court. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q40. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct? 1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President. 2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q41. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses. 2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a join sitting. 3. It is being notified by the President. 4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Q42. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?

MockTime.com (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right. (c) Dr. Ambedkar called it the ‗very soul of the Indian Constitution‘. (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under Article 32 where a Fundamental Right has not been violated. Q43. Which of the following committee overviews the welfare of the Schedule Castes and Scheduled Tribes: (a) Parliamentary Committee (b) Judicial Committee (c) Lok Sabha Committee (d) Rajya Sabha Committee Q44. Which of the following article provides for the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Art 95 (b) Art 85 (c) Art 90 (d) Art 93 Q45. Which one of the following glands in the human body stores iodine? (a) Parathyroid (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal Q46. Which of the following nutrients is not a structural component of the plant? (a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium (c) Phosphorus (d) Potassium Q47. Sweating during exercise indicates operation of which one of the following processes in the human body? (a) Enthalpy (b) Phagocytosis (c) Homeostasis (d) Osmoregulation Q48. Which one of the following is present in chlorophyll which gives a green colour to plant leaves? (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Iron

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(d) Manganese Q49. Which one of the following statement regarding potato is correct? (a) It is a root (b) It is a normal stem (c) It is a modified stem (d) It is a modified root Q50. Which one of the following plants is used for green manuring in India? (a) Wheat (b) Sunnhemp (c) Cotton (d) Rice Q51. Dead organs are generally stored in formalin. Formalin is beacuse it acts as a disinfectant which is due to the presence of formaldehyde (a) aqueous ferrous sulphate (b) aqueous formaldehyde (c) aqueous formic acid (d) aqueous feme alum Q52. To suspect HIV/AIDS in a young individual, which one among the following symptoms is mostly associated with? (a) Long standing jaundice and chronic liver disease (b) Severe anaemia (c) Chronic diarrhoea (d) Severe persistent headache Q53. Which one among the following statements about blood transfusion is correct? Blood group B can give blood to (a) blood Group B and receive from Group AB (b) blood Groups B and AB and receive from Group B (c) blood Groups B and AB and receive from Group A (d) blood Group O and receive from Group B Q54. Deficiency of which of the following elements is responsible for weakening of bones? 1.Calcium 2. Phosphorus 3.Nitrogen 4.Carbon Select the correct answer using the codesgiven below (a) 1 and2 (b) Only1

MockTime.com (c) 1,2 and3 (d) Only4 Q55. Which one among the following cattle breed produces highest amount of milk? (a) Brown Swiss (b) Holstein (c) Dutch belted (d) Blaarkop Q56. Which of the following diseases are preventable by vaccine? 1.Tetanus 2. Polio 3.Leprosy 4.Pertusis Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and4 (c) 1,2 and4 (d) All of these Q57. Which one of the following Public Sector Bank's emblem figures a dog and the words 'faithful friendly, in it? (a) Punjab National Bank (b) Syndicate Bank (c) Oriental Bank of Commerce (d) State Bank of India Q58. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? 1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in India. 2. NIFTY is governed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual funds. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q59. Which of the following factors was not a reason behind the occurrence of the Industrial Revolution in England first? (a) No part of the country was far from the sea (b) Navigable rivers made inland transport easier. (c) In England machines could be operated by wind or water power due to favourable climate condition (d) England had coal, iron and other necessary mineral resources

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Q60. In India, mergers and acquisition of firms are regulated by (a) National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (b) Competition Commission of India (c) Security and Exchange Board of India (d) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion Q61. A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as (a) Perfect competition (b) Monopoly (c) Monopolistic competition (d) Oligopoly

MockTime.com Q66. Indian poverty is said to be predominantly rural. Yet the problem of urban poverty appears to have reached unmanageable proportions. The paradox is explained by: I. greater visibility of urban poverty II. migration of rural population to urban areas III. seasonality of agricultural operations IV. the cycle of drought and floods (a) I above (b) I & II (c) I & IV (d) 1 and 3

Q62. NABARDs primary role is: (a) to provide term loans to state cooperative banks (b) to assist state governments for share capital contribution (c) to act as a refinance institution (d) all of these

Q67. Which of the following factors was primarily responsible for the delay in implementing the recommendations of the Disinvestment Commission? (a) Resistance from PSU employees (b) Prolonged bearish sentiments in the stock market (c) Differences among the coalition partners in government (d) Delay in obtaining Parliamentary approval

Q63. The abnormal increase in buffer stock of FCI in recent times is due to: (a) as dries of bumper harvest (b) procurement prices are above market prices (c) additional storage facility created by FCI (d) transport bottlenecks in wheat producing regions

Q68. Insider Trading is an offence under Indian laws. Who among the following will not, in the normal circumstances, beat focused of insider trading? (a) A financial journalist covering a company (b) A director of the company (c) An auditor of the company (d) An employee of the company

Q64. The roadmap for the abolition of Central Sales Tax and introduction of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) indicates a time limit of: (a) 1 January 2012 (b) yet to be decided (c) 30 May 2012 (d) 31 December 2013

Q69. In which one of the following ci ties, was the East India Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866? (a) Paris (b) London (c) New York (d) Tokyo

Q65. It is often argued that population growth is not merely a question of numbers but that of the age composition of population : (a) more numbers will inevitably mean more production (b) more people in the productive age group means net addition to wealth (c) the nature of public expenditure on services is determined by the composition of the population (d) none of the above

Q70. In which of the following years was the first Railway line between Bombay and Thane laid? (a) 1853 (b) 1854 (c) 1856 (d) 1858

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Q71. ‗A Forgotten Empire‘, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell is about which one of the following empires? (a) Kushan empire (b) Mauryan empire (c) Vijayanagar empire (d) Mughal empire Q72. Which of the following statements about Annie Besant are correct? 1. She founded the Central Hindu College at Benaras. 2. She organised the Home Rule League. 3. She introduced the Theosophical Movement in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q73. When Lord Mountbatten became the first Governor-General of India, who among the following became the GovernorGeneral for Pakistan? (a) Lord Mountbatten (b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (c) Liaquat Ali Khan (d) Shaukat Ali Q74. Which of the following statements above Ryotwari settlement is/are correct? 1. It recognised the cultivators as the owner of land. 2. It was a temporary settlement. 3. It was introduced later than the permanent settlement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) All of these Q75. Industrial Revolution in Europe mainly emerged due to 1. locating the production process in the countryside. 2. declining of the guilds because of non farming production coming under a single roof (the factory). 3. growing role of merchant capitalists in the production process.

MockTime.com Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 Q76. Statement I Annie Besant worked together with the Congress and the Muslim League during the Home Rule Movement. Statement II Annie Besant felt that this was necessary to get the support of the masses for the Home Rule Movement. Codes: (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statment I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement II is false, but Statement II is true Q77. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are written in (a) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script (b) Prakrit language, Brahmi script (c) Prakrit-Aramaic language, Brahmi script (d) Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script Q78. Industrial Revolution, in its early phase from C 1760 to C. 1850, was largely dependent for its success on (a) machine power that replaced the labour on a large scale (b) elaborate road network for transportation of industrial products (c) network of electric power stations (d) organisation of labour under factory system Q79. Who among the following cultures were the first to paint their pottery? (a) Mesolithic (b) Chalcolithic (c) Neolithic (d) Iron age Q80. The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, as (a) growth of large-scale British trade (b) an attack upon his sovereignty (c) insecurity of the British in India (d) British control over Bengal

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Q81. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about Bhakti tradition in South India? 1. Earliest Bhakti Movements in India were led by Alvar and Nayanar saints. 2. Nalayira Divyaprabandham, frequently described as Tamil Veda is an anthology of compositions by the Alvars. 3. Karaikkal Ammaiyar, women Alvar saints, supported patriarchal norms. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these Q82. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in (a) Hind Swaraj (b) An Authobiography–The Story of My Experiments with Truth (c) History of the Satyagraha in South Africa (d) The Bhagavad Geeta According to Gandhi Q83. Consider the following statements about colonial economy of Vietnam (IndoChina): 1. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations. 2. All the rubber plantations in Vietnam were owned and controlled by a small Vietnamese elite. 3. Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. 4. Indentured labourers worked on the basis of contracts that did not specify any rights of labourers but gave immense power to the employers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Q84. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of the Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings? 1. These uprisings refer to a series of skirmishes between the English East India Company and a group of sannyasis and fakirs.

MockTime.com 2. One reason for the uprising was the ban on free movement of the sannyasis along pilgrimage routes. 3. In the course of the uprisings in 1773, Warren Hastings issued a proclamation banishing all sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar. 4. Are contemporaneous with the NonCooperation Movement. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only Q85. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) All meridians run in a ture North-South direction (b) Meridians are spaced farthest apart at the equator and converge to common points at the poles (c) All meridians are always parallel to one another (d) An indefinite number of meridians may be drown on a globe Q86. Match the following List I (Pass) List II (State) A. Zoji La Pass - 1. Sikkim B. Bara Lacha Pass - 2. Uttarakhand C. Jelep La Pass - 3. Himachal Preadesh D. Niti Pass - 4. Jammu and Kashmir Codes A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 Q87. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for high concentration of jute mills in the Hugli basin? Select the correct answer using the code given below 1. Nearness to coal fields. 2. Convenient dry climate for spinning and weaving. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q88. Israel has common borders with (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt (b) Turkey, Syria, Jordan and Yemen (c) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan

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(d) Cyprus, Turkey, Jorden and Egypt Q89. If the movement of the Earth's crust or a major climatic change makes an old stream young, it is called (a) consequent stream (b) rejuvenation (c) subsequent stream (d) aggradation Q90. If the earth did not have an atmosphere, temperature extremes between day and night would (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) fluctuate rapidly Q91. The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect sphere. This is because l. the Earth has a rotational motion and the rotational speed increases as one goes from the poles towards the equator. 2. the equator experiences greater gravitational pull from the sun. 3. the intensity of sunlight received at the equator is greater than that at the poles. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these Q92. Which one among the following statement is correct? (a) In summer season, the duration of day is more in Northern Hemisphere (b) In winter season, the duration of day is more in Northern Hemisphere (c) In summer season, the duration of day is less in Northern Hemisphere (d) In winter season, the duration of day is more in Southern Hemisphere Q93. The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin decreases from the (a) West to East and North to South (b) East to West and North to South (c) West to East and South to North (d) East to West and South to North Q94. Which one among the following cities never get the vertical rays of the Sun all through the year? (a) Chennai

MockTime.com (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Srinagar Q95. The imaginary line on the Earth's surface that closely follows the 180° Meridian is (a) Prime Meridian (b) Equator (c) International Date Line (d) Tropic of Cancer Q96. Why do we have a leap year every four years? (a) The Earth gets shifted out of orbit every four year (b) The revolution slows down a little once every four years (c) The length of a year is not an integer number of days (d) It is a convention Q97. Match the following 3 List I List II (Mineral) (Producing Centre in Map) A. Copper B. Mice B. Chromite D. Lignite 2 4 1 Codes A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 271-273): The following questions consist of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below. Q98. Match the following lists 3 List I List II (Place) (Location in Map) A. Kollam 1. B. Tuticorin 2. B. Ongole 3. D. Nellore 4. 2 4 1 Codes A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 Q99. 'Global Dimming' means

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(a) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere (b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots (c) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the Earth surface (d) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar regions Q100. Consider the following sanctuaries of India 1. Periyar 2. Dachigam 3. Sariska 4. Kanha Which one among the following is the correct sequence of location of the above sanctuaries from South to Sorth? (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2 Q101. Biodiversity is richer in (a) tropical regions (b) polar regions (c) temperate regions (d) oceans Q102. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil conservation in hilly region? 1. Terracing and contour bunding 2. Shifting cultivation 3. Contour ploughing Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these Q103. Holding a 'Bandh' was declared illegal for the first time in India by which one of the following High Courts? (a) Rajasthan High Court (b) Gujarat High Court (c) Kerala High Court (d) Maharashtra High Court Q104. Consider the following statements about Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) 1. The treaty comes into force only if and when all nuclear capable countries sign it. 2. Iraq and India have not signed the treaty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

MockTime.com (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q105. Roh Moo-hyun, the President (20032008) of which one of the following countries has committed suicide in May, 2009? (a) Japan (b) South Korea (c) Indonesia (d) North Korea Q106. Consider the following statements 1. An Inconvenient Truth is a documentary film about global warming directed by Al Gore. 2. The film focuses on Al Gore and his travels in support of his efforts to educate the public about the severity of the climate crisis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q107. Which one the following states has won the overall championship title in the 63rd National Aquatic Championship held in Kerala in 2009? (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Asom (d) West Bengal Q108. Consider the following statements about lawn tennis court 1. Hard courts are faster than clay courts but not as fast as grass courts. 2. The French Open is played on a hard court, but the US Open is played on a clay court. 3. An approximate North/South orientation of the court is desirable during evening play. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Q109. In IP Spoofing (a) secret data are illegally distributed through computer networks (b) cyber criminals attack another computer by identifying the electronic identity of a trusted machine in order to mask his own true electronic identity

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(c) data confidentiality is achieved using cryptographic and steganographic algorithms (d) cyber terrorist, cyber fraud or cyber crimes are identified Q110. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between (a) China and India (b) Singapore and Indonesia (c) India and Singapore (d) Malaysia and Thailand Q111. A devastating Cloud Burst swept over Leh on August 2010. Which one of the following statements with regard to Cloud Burst is not correct? C-166 Miscellaneous (a) Cloud Burst is a localised weather phenomenon representing highly concentrated rainfall over a small area in a short duration of time (b) Cloud Burst occurs due to upward movements of moisture laden air with sufficient rapidity to form cumulonimbus clouds (c) Cloud Burst occurs only in hilly areas (d) There is no satisfactory technique till now for predicting Cloud Burst Q112. Who among the following was choosen for the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2010? (a) K Balachander (b) D Ramanaidu (c) VK Murthy (d) Adoor Gopalakrishnan Q113. China recently objected the participation of an Indian company in its joint venture with another country for offshore oil exploration. Which one among the following is that country? (a) Myanmar (b) South Korea (c) Taiwan (d) Vietnam Q114. Which one among the following is the fastest Indian Supercomputer recently developed by ISRO? (a) Aakash A-l (b) Saga 220 (c) Jaguar-Cray (d) Tianhe-IA

MockTime.com Q115. Which one among the following Indian events will be upgraded an international event from February, 2013? (a) Toshali Craft Mela (b) Surajkund Craft Mela (c) Sindhu Darshan Festival (d) Pushkar Fair Q116. Mention the odd man out. (a) Didier Drogba (b) Oliver Kahn (c) Lionel Messi (d) Cristiano Ronaldo Q117. The ‗Thomas Cup is associated with (a) Table Tennis (b) Lawn Tennis (c) Badminton (d) Billiards Q118. 'Silent Spring', considered by many as one among the greatest science books of all time, is written by Rachel Carson. The book deals with (a) wild life preservation (b) protection of the environment (c) pollution of the water body (d) None of the above Q119. 'Garuda-V', concluded recently, is a joint exercise between the Air Forces of India and (a) Japan (b) Canada (c) Russia (d) France Q120. Consider the following statements: l. The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission. 2. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two subMissions – Union Territories and States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. d 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. b 56. b 57. B 58. d 59. C 60. B 61. C 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. b 66.

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b 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. a 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. c 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. c 87. b 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. b 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. a 103. c 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. c 111. c 112. a 113. d 114. b 115. b 116. b 117. c 118. b 119. d 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. The isotope of carbon6C14 is used in radio carbon dating. 6. Iodine is a powerful antiseptic. It is used as a tincture of iodine which is2-3% iodine solution is alcoholwater. 7. Light production in fireflies is due to a type of chemical reaction called bioluminescence. This process occurs in specialised lightemitting organs, usually on a firefly's lower abdomen. The enzyme luciferase acts on the luciferin, in the presence of magnesium ions, ATP, and oxygen to produce light. 8. During the setting of cement, the structure has to be cooled by spraying water because setting of cement is an exothermic process and involves hydration of calcium aluminates and calcium silicates. 9. Lactic acid occurs in sour curd. Tartaric acid occurs in tamarind. Oxalic acid occurs in tomato. Citric acid occurs in all citrous fruits like orange, lemon etc. 10. 11. The main cause of hardness of water is presence of Ca or Mg ions. When hard water containing these ions is treated with soap solution it reacts to form white crudy ppt known as scum. 12. An aquifer is an underground layer of water bearing rock. Water bearing rocks are permeable i.e., they have opening that liquids and gases can pass through. But clay layers are poor aquifers. Clay minerals are dense, impermeable material and act as an 'aquiteral' i.e., a layer of material that is almost impenctrable to water. Through groundwater might more through such material it will do so reny slowly. 13. The white solid remains in the container when hard water is evaporated completely is mainly due to the presence of carbanates of Ca and Mg and also due to presence of traces of sulphates of Ca and Mg. 14. 15.

MockTime.com 16. 17. In a pressure cooker while cooking pressure increases due to which boiling point of water also increases as P µ T. 18. Horizontal range R = 2 u sin 2 g q For maximum horizontal range q should be 45° Rmax = 2 u g [Qsin 2 sin90 1 q= °=] 19. The hollow bricks provide thermal insulations; the air in hollow bricks, does not allow outside heat or cold in the house to go out or come in the house. So, it keeps house cool in summer and warm in winter. 20. 21. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) is used to measure the density or strength of bones. 22. From the ray diagram, it is very clear that the image of the object placed at infinity from a concave lens is virtual diminished and at the focus of the lens. F Concave lens Rays from the object placed at infinity 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. According to Article 243 (I) the governor of the state shall set up the Finance Commission within the period of one year. State Finance Commissions receive grants from the Finance Commission that is set up by the central government. 30. The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to be decrees of Court and therefore the court has all the powers in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by itself. This includes the powers to extend time in appropriate cases. The award passed by the Lok Adalat is the decision of the court itself, though, arrived at by the simpler method of conciliation instead of the process of arguments in court. 31. Correct chronological order of the VicePresidents of India is as follows: 1. V.V .Giri 1967 2. G.S Pathak 1969 3. B.D Jatti-1974 4. M Hidayatullah- 1979 32. The Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Act) was included in the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party. 33. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among States in such a way that the ratio between the number of

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seats allotted to each State and population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same for all States. The 84th Amendment to the Constitution (which was numbered as the 91st Amendment Bill before it was passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd Constitution amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation within States on the basis of the 1991 Census. 34. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India except autonomous Districts of Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. According to Section 8 of Representation of Peoples Act 1951,a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years [other than any offence referred to in sub-section (a) or sub-section (b)] shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. 35. The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved in 2002 providing free and compulsory education to all children age 6 to 14 years has been notified. It included Article 21 (a) in the Indian constitution making education a fundamental right. 36. The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main types of states: The Part A states were ruled by an elected governor and state legislature. The Part B states were governed by a rajpramukh. The Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India. The Part D states were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government. 37. The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (a) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51 (a) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India. 38. To practise family planning and to control population, is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward

MockTime.com was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years. 39. The E-courts project was established in 2005. According to the project, all the courts including taluk courts will get computerized. As per the project in 2008, all the District courts were initialised under the project. In 2010, all the District courts were computerized. The project also includes producing witnesses through video conferencing. The judicial service centres are available in all court campuses. The Public as well as the advocates can walk in directly and ask for the case status, stage and next hearing dates. 40. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by the President of India. CAG is an authority that was established by the Constitution of India under article 148. Report of CAG of Union Accounts to be submitted to President who causes them to be laid before each house of parliament 41. Article 108 of the Constitution empowers the President to summon a joint session of both houses "for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill". In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. If at the joint sitting the Bill is passed with or without amendments with a majority of total number of members of the two Houses present and voting, it shall be deemed to be passed by both the Houses. It is not frequently restored to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. 42. Under Article 226,a High Court can issue these writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for the redress of any other injury or illegality, owing to contravention of the ordinary law. 43. 44. 45. Thyroid gland in human body contains iodine. Deficiency of iodine creates goitre disease. Which is observed by the enlargement of larynx. 46. Potassium ions(K+) are responsible for protein synthesis, opening and closing of stomata in plants. 47. Homeostatic regulation includes sweating. It is the main process through which the body gets coolness. 48. Chlorophyll is a tetrapyrole ring system that contains the magnesium ion. The

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tetrapyrole ring system chelates magnesium illustrating a conjugated double bond. This bond gives the light absorption feature to chlorophyll and provides it green colour. 49. It is a modified stem to store food synthesised by plants. Potato plants are herbaceous kerennials that contain very high amount of corbohydrates. 50. Sunnhemp (crotoloria juncea) is a plant which is utilized for green manuring in India. It is largely cultivated for green manure and its leaves are fed as high protion supplement to other poorer feeds. 51. Formalin contains40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde. Dead organs are preserved in10% formalin solution. 52. After4-8 weeks of infection by HIV virus to a healthy individual, the acute phase of HIV infection begins. About30-60% people develop symptoms like severe persistant headache with sore throat and mild fever et c. 53. Blood group B can provide blood to blood Groups B and AB and gets from Group B and Group‘O. 54. Deficiency of calcium causes weakening of bones because bone consists of calcium and phosphate both. 55. Holstein Friesians are world's highestproduction dairy animals. They are found mostly in Netherlands/ Germany. 56. Polio and pertusis are caused by virus. So, these can be controlled by vaccines. 57. Syndicate Bank. The symbol of dog implies that Bank is trustworthy and a friend. Its slogan is: Your faithful and friendly financial partner. 58. NIFTY is an Index computed from performance of top stocks from different sectors listed on NSE (National stock exchange). NIFTY consists of 50 companies from 24 different sectors. Indian Capital Markets are regulated and monitored by the Ministry of Finance, The Securities and Exchange Board of India and The Reserve Bank of India. It does not trade in mutual funds. 59. On the natural side England has in abundance three important commodities water, iron and coal. Water in Britain's numerous hilly districts provides the power to drive mills in the early stages of industrialization; the rivers, amplified from 1761 by a developing network of canals, facilitate inland transport in an age where roads are only rough tracks; and the sea,

MockTime.com never far from any part of Britain, makes transport of heavy goods easy between coastal cities. 60. The Competition Act, 2002 prohibits anti competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control and Merger and acquisition), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India. Competition Commission of India was established on 14 October 2003 and became fully functional in May 2009. It is a body of the Government of India responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002 throughout India and to prevent activities that have an adverse effect on competition in India 61. Monopolistic competition is a form of market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular products but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. The "Grand Old Man of India" Dadabhai Naoroji initiated establishment of East India Association at London. 70. The country's first railway, built by the Great Indian Peninsula Railway (GIPR) , opened in 1853 between Bombay and Thane. 71. Robert Sewell was a civil servant of Madras presidency. He was Keeper of the Record Office of Madras .He authored 'A Forgotten EmpireVijayanagar', acontribution to the History of India. 72. Annie Besant (1847-1933) was the second President of The Theosophical Society from 1907 to 1933. She founded Central Hindu collegeat Banaras. Besant launched the All India Home Rule League along with Lokmanya Tilak in 1916. 73. Mohammed Ali Jinnah was Indian Muslim politician, founder and first governorgeneral (1947-48) of Pakistan. He was born on Dec. 25, 1876at Karachi(now in Pakistan) and died Sept 11, 1948,at Karachi. As the first Governor-General of Pakistan, Jinnah worked to establish the new nation's government and policies, and to help settle the millions of Muslim migrants who had

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emigrated from the new nation of India to Pakistan after the partition. He is revered in Pakistan as Quaidi-Azam. 74. The Ryotwari system, instituted in some parts of British India, was one of the two main systems used to collect revenues from the cultivators of agricultural land. Features of Ryotwari System 1. Government claimed the property rights to all the land, but allotted it to the cultivators on the condition that they pay taxes. In other words, it established a direct relation between the landholder and the government. 2. Farmers could use, sell, mortgage, bequeath, and lease the land as long as they paid their taxes. In other words Ryotwari system gave a proprietary right upon the landholders. 3. IF they did not pay taxes, they were evicted 4. Taxes were only fixed in a temporary settlement for a period of thirty years and then revised. 5. Government had retained the right to enhance land revenue whenever it wanted 6. Provided measures for revenue relief during famines but they were seldom applied in real life situation. 75. Causes of the Revolution • The end of medieval structures changed economic relationships and allowed for change. • A higher population because of less disease and lower infant mortality allows for a larger industrial workforce. • The Agricultural Revolution frees people from the soil, allowing - or driving - them into cities and manufacturing. • Proportionally large amounts of spare capital were available for investment. • Inventions and the scientific revolution allowed for new technology to increase and cheapen production. • Colonial trade networks allowed the import of materials and the export of manufactured goods. • The presence of all the required resources closed together, such as coal near iron. • Culture of hard work, risk taking and the development of ideas. • Demand for goods. 76. 77. Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi inscriptions of ashoka are written in Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script. Shahbaz Garhi is an historic site located in Mardan District in the North West Frontier Province of Pakistan. Mansehra is located in Mansehra District, KhyberPakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan. 78. Industrial Revolution in its early phase (from 1760 c to 1850 c) was largely

MockTime.com dependent for its success on organization of labour under factory system. 79. Chalcolithic Cultures were the first to paint their pottery. 80. When the elderly Alivardi Khan died in 1756, he was succeeded as Nawab of Bengal by his grandson, Siraj ud-Daulah. He was particularly distrustful of the British, and aimed to seize Calcutta and the large treasure he believed would be held there. From the moment he became Nawab, he began searching for a pretext to drive the British from his lands.It resulted in a battle between British East India Company andSiraj udDaulah. The British were unprepared for the attack on June 20th. Entire European population of the city fell almost immediately leaving the city in Indian hands. 81. Karaikal Ammaiyar was one of the three women amongst the sixty three Nayanmars, and was one of the greatest figures of early Tamil literature. 82. Hind Swaraj- Gandhi ji's views on Indian Home Rule My Experience with TruthAutobiography of Gandhiji He deployed satyagraha in the Indian independence movement and also during his earlier struggles in South Africa for Indian rights and social Justice. Bhagavad Gita- Spiritual Lives of Common people. 83. Rubber plantation in Vietnam was owned and controlled by French and a small Vietnamese elite. 84. The immediate cause of the rebellion was the restrictions, imposed on the pilgrims visiting the holy places. The Sanyasis raided the English factories and collected contributions from the towns, leading to a series of conflicts between the large bands of Sanyasis and the British forces. The rebellion started 1750 onwards but took a violent turn since 1773 when Warren Hastings assumed as the Governor-General of Bengal. In 1773,he issued a proclamation banishing all sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar. 85. A meridian is an imaginary line joining the north and south poles at right angles to the equator, designated by degrees of longitude from 0° at Greenwich to 180°.The position of a point along the meridian is given by its latitude. Each meridian is perpendicular to all circles of latitude. 86. 1. Zoji La Pass- Jammu and Kashmir 2. Bara Lacha Pass- Himachal Pradesh 3. Jalep La Pass- Sikkim 4. Niti pass- Uttarakhand.

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87. Jute Mills are highly concentrated in Hugli Basin (West Bengal) because This industry requires a lot of water which is easily available from the Hugli River. Iron and coal which are required for the installation and running of jute factories are also available from the nearby mines of Raniganj. Jute is the crop of hot and humid climate. It requires high temperature varying from 24°C to 35°C and heavy rainfall of 120 to 150 cm with 80 to 90 per cent relative humidity during the period of its growth.This type of climate is found in West Bengal. 88. Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, jordan, and Egypt. 89. Rejuvenation is the act of restoring to a more youthful condition. 90. If a planet has no atmosphere, all of the sunlight which strikes it reaches the surface, and usually 90% or more of that is absorbed and 10% or less is reflected back into space. Thus the temperature will increase. 91. It's an oblate spheroid because of inertial forces. The planet spins on its axis. This motion causes the regions closer to the equator to bulge outwards resulting in the current shape of the Earth. Earth is not perfectly spherical. The pull of gravity on an object changes as the distance of the object from the centre of the earth changes. If the Earth were a perfect sphere, then objects would weigh exactly the same any place on Earth (as long as they were at the same elevation). In reality, the weight of an object varies as it changes its position on the Earth's surface. At the equator, where the Earth's diameter is greatest, objects weigh a little less. At the Poles, where the Earth's diameter is the least, objects weight a little more. 92. During summer season(May, June, and July) the northern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight because the hemisphere faces the sun. 93. The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin decreases from the West to east and North to South. 94. Any city north of the Tropic of Cancer will never have the sun directly overhead. Thus, Sri Nagar never gets vertical rays of the sun all through the year. Its latitude is approximately 34 degree north. 95. The International Date Line is an imaginary line of longitude on the Earth's surface located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the Greenwich Meridian.

MockTime.com 96. Number of days in a year is 365 days and 6 hours (It is not a complete day). Having years of 365 days makes the year too short. To keep up with the real length of the year maintaining an integer number of days,an extra day is added every four years. 97. 98. Kollam is an old seaport and city on the Laccadive Sea coast in Kerala.Tuticorin is a port city in Thoothukudi in Tamil Nadu.Ongole is a city in Prakasam district of Andhra Pradesh. Nellore is the 4th most populous city in Andhra Pradesh. 99. Global dimming is defined as the decrease in the amounts of solar radiation reaching the surface of the Earth. The Global dimming has devastating effects on the earth's environment and living beings. The pollutants causing global dimming also leads to acid rain, smog and respiratory diseases in humans. 100. A geostationary satellite is an earthorbiting satellite, placed at an altitude of approximately 35,800 kilometres (22,300 miles) directly over the equatorand revolves in the same direction as the earth rotates (west to east). 101. Biodiversity is richer in tropical regions. Biodiversity is a measure of the health of ecosystems. Greater biodiversity implies greater health. Biodiversity is in part a function of climate. In terrestrial habitats, tropical regions are typically rich whereas Polar Regions support fewer species. 102. Terracing is the mechanical practice used on slopping agricultural land to reduce the length and /or the degree of slope. Contour ploughingis the farming practice of ploughingand/or planting across a slope following its elevation contour lines. Shifting agricultureis asystem of cultivation that preserves soil fertility by plot (field) rotation, as distinct from crop rotation. 103. A pan India "bandh" is more of a political tool to fulfil populist agenda of certain political institutions. It was in 1997 that Kerala High Court had ruled that these types of "bandhs" are illegal. That was the first time that political parties received a blow to their populist tactics. This was challenged in the Apex court to which the Supreme Court in 1998, upholding the Kerala HC verdict, said that these "bandhs" are "illegal and unconstitutional" means of protest. 104. Article XIV of the CTBT stipulates that for the treaty to enter into force the signature

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and ratification by all the 44 states possessing nuclear weapons capabilities and research reactors as listed in Annex 2 is a prerequisite. 105. Roh Moo-hyun was the ninth President of the South Korea. He committed suicide by leaping from a hill behind his house on May 23, 2009. 106. 'An Inconvenient Truth' is a 2006 documentary film directed by Davis Guggenheim about former United States Vice President Al Gore's campaign to educate citizens about global warming. 107. Karnataka, who retained the overall championship title bagging 18 golds, 17 silvers and eight bronze medals, finished their journey in the six-day event with 318 points. 108. The French Open is played on clay while US Open uses hard courts. Clay courts slow down the ball and produce a high bounce in comparison to grass courts or hard courts. Grass courts are the fastest type of courts in common use. An approximate North/South orientation is desirable to avoid the effects of low sun during evening play. 109. The protocol does not provide data confidentiality. It is achieved using cryptographic and steganographic algorithms. 110. Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) conducted annual bilateral naval exercises named SIMBEX. The 21st series of SIMBEX hosted by India was conducted from 22 May to 28 May 2014. 111. The cloudburst is a localised weather phenomena representing highly concentrated rainfall over a small area lasting for few hours. This leads to flash floods/ landslides, house collapse, dislocation of traffic and human casualties on large scale. They occur most often in desert, mountainous regions and interiors of continents. 112. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given to a film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian Cinema. The award comprises a Swarna Kamal, a cash Prize of Rs. 10,00,000 (Rupees Ten Lakhs) and a shawl. K. Balachander was given the prize for the year of 2010. He made more than 100 films in various Indian languages through his production house, Kavithalayaa Productions which was established in 1981. 113. 114. SAGA-220 is a supercomputer built by the Indian Space Research Organisation

MockTime.com (ISRO). As of May 2011, it is the fastest supercomputer in the nation with a maximum theoretical speed of 220 TFlops. 115. The famous Surajkund Crafts Mela has been upgraded as an international event and known as Surajkund International Crafts Mela since February 2013. The event is held in Haryana's Faridabad district, 20 km from New Delhi. The decision to upgrade the fair as an international event was taken at a high-level meeting of the fair's governing body chaired by Union Tourism Secretary R.H. Khwaja. 116. 117. Thomas Cup is associated with Badminton. 118. The book 'Silent Spring' deals with protection of the environment. 119. The fifth edition of the Indo-French air exercise "Garuda" took place from 2nd to 13th June 2014 at Air Force Station Jodhpur. 120. NBA(Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan) has been restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission with two sub-Missions - Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Which of the following is not a biodiversity hotspot? (a) Succulent Karoo (b) Wallacea (c) Cerrado (d) Antigua Q2. Treatment for divers suffering from decompression sickness comes from: (a) Sharks (b) Cetaceans (c) Polar bears (d) Cobra venom Q3. 10-20% of the worlds dry lands that have been degraded include: 1.savannahs 2.tempearte forest 3.shrublands 4.decidous grasslands (a) 1, 2 (b) 1,3 (c) 1,2,4 (d) 2, 3 ,4 Q4. Amphibians are facing unprecedented decline the world over. This has been attributed to 1. Considerable increase in amphibian predators 2. loss of habitat 3.fungal infections 4.global climate change The correct response is: (a) 1 only (b) 2, 4 (c) 1,3,4 (d) 3,4 Q5. An oc-particle consists of which of the following? (a) 2 protons and2 neutrons (b) 1 proton and1 electron (c) 2 protons and4 neutrons (d) 1 proton and1 neutron Q6. Which one of the following is not a chemical change? (a) Burning of coal in air

(b) Fermentation of sugar cane juice (c) Crystallisation of table salt from sea water (d) Cracking of petroleum Q7. Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket? (a) Nylon-6,6 (b) Rayon (c) Kevlar (d) Dacron Q8. Statement I: Superphosphate of lime can be assimilated by plants. Statement II: Superphosphate of lime is soluble in water. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q9. One of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by the workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is (a) stone formation in gall bladder (b) melanoma (c) silicosis (d) stone formation in kidney Q10. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) All bases are alkalis (b) None of the bases is alkali (c) There are no more bases except the alkalis (d) All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis Q11. What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction? (a) It increases the rate of reaction (b) It decreases the rate of reaction (c) It increases the yield of the products (d) It provides better purity of the products Q12. Addition of ethylene dibromide to petrol (a) increases the octane number of fuel (b) helps elimination of lead oxide (c) removes the sulphur compound in petrol (d) serves as a substitute of tetraethyl lead

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Q13. Which one among the following compounds has same equivalent weight and molecular weight? (a) H2 SO4 (b) CaCl2 (c) Na2 SO4 (d) NaCl Q14. The material that is not a polymer is (a) DNA (b) starch (c) benzyl palmitate (d) insulin Q15. The term ―Cynogenesis‖ describes the release of (a) hydrogen cyanide (HCN) (b) hydrochloric acid (HCL) (c) hydrogen peroxide (H202) (d) hydrogen sulphide (H2S) Q16. An isentropic process occurs at (a) changing temperature (b) constant pressure (c) constant entropy (d) constant enthalpy Q17. The phenomenon of mirage occurs due to which one of the following? (a) Polarisation of light (b) Dispersion of light (c) Diffraction of light (d) Total internal reflection of light Q18. Which one of the following statement is true? (a) Temperatures differing 25° on the fahrenheit (F) scale must differ by 45° on the celsius (C) scale (b) 0°F corresponds to – 32°C (c) Temperatures which differ by 10° on the celsius scale must differ by 18° on the Fahrenheit scale (d) Water at 90°C is warmer than water at 202°F Q19. If a ship moves from freshwater into seawater, it will (a) sink completely (b) sink a little bit (c) rise a little higher (d) remain unaffected

MockTime.com Q20. Before X-ray examination (coloured Xray) of the stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium because (a) barium salts are white in colour and this helps stomach to appear clearly (b) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear clearly (c) barium salts are easily available (d) barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach Q21. The main source of energy in sun is (a) nuclear fusion (b) nuclear fission (c) chemical reaction (d) mechanical energy Q22. The upper and lower portions in common type of bi-focal lenses are respectively (a) concave and convex (b) convex and concave (c) both concave of different focal lengths (d) both convex of different focal lengths Q23. Two pieces of conductor of same material and of equal length are connected in series with a cell. One of the two pieces has cross-sectional area double that of the other. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?] (a) The thicker one will allow stronger current to pass through it. (b) The thinner one would allow stronger current to pass through it. (c) Same amount of electric current would pass through both the pieces producing more heat in the thicker one. (d) Same amount of electric current would pass through both the pieces producing more heat in the thinner one. Q24. A stone tied at the end of a string is whirled in a circular orbit. If the length of the string and the velocity of the stone are both doubled, the tension in the string (a) Is also doubled (b) Becomes four times (c) Is halved (d) Remains unchanged Q25. The failure of light to travel strictly in a straight line is known as (a) Dispersion (b) Polarization

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(c) Refraction (d) Diffraction Q26. Consider the following statements: 1.Water drops are spherical due to surface tension 2.For a given volume a sphere has the minimum surface area Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Both land 2 (b) Neither1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q27. Consider the following statements: 1.Aquatic life is preserved under frozen water in a lake. 2.Water has minimum density at 4°C. Which of the following statements is/are true? (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q28. The specifications on two fluorescent tubes (T-5 and T-10) of same length are given below:T-5T- 10 Wattage 2840 Light output 24801 m 24501 m Diameter 1.6 cm 3.2 cm. Which tube should be preferred and why? (1)T-10, because is has more surface area, and, therefore, more light output. (2)T-5, because its light output per watt is higher (3)T-5, because its power efficiency is higher. Which of the above answers is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Q29. Consider the following statements about the AttorneyGeneral of India? 1. He is appointed by the President of India 2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the Parliament. 3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q30. Sarkaria Commission was established to study

MockTime.com (a) President and Governoers' relations (b) Centre-State relations (c) State and Panchayat body relations (d) President and Prime Minister' relations Q31. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) M A Ayyangar (b) G V Mavalankar (c) Sardar Hukam Singh (d) N Sanjiva Reddy Q32. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the 'Vote of Confidence' that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha? (a) VP Singh (b) PV Narasimha Rao (c) Chandra Sekhar (d) Manmohan Singh Q33. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of noconfidence in the Lok Sabha? (a) Chandra Shekhar (b) Morarji Desai (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh (d) VP Singh Q34. Why is political power sharing through different levels of government desirable in a democracy? 1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between various social groups. 2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decisionmaking. 3. It prompts people's participation at different levels of government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 Q35. Statement I Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer of the House. Statement II When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is knwon as adjournment sine die. (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Q36. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by then (a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed (b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party (c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed (d) Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India Q37. Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model? (a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns (b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s (c) Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s (d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure Q38. The writ of Prohibition ib issued by a superior court (a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice (b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review (c) where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office (d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for tri al Q39. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President's rule in the state (a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature (b) on the recommendation of the President (c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister (d) if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India Q40. The principle of "collective responsibility' under parliamentary democracy implies that

MockTime.com 1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister. 2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister. 3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime minister says that he shall be dismissed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 Q41. 'The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy'. The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr B R Ambedkar (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) Acharya J B Kriplani Q42. Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003? 1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country. 2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without citizenship. 3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India. 4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4 Q43. The National Commission on Scheduled Castes is a (a) Statutory body (b) Constitutional body (c) Body created by the decision of the Cabinet

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(d) Extra-constitutional body Q44. The Scheduled Caste representation in the Panchayats would be as much percentage as is the percentage of their population. (a) 30% (b) 25% (c) 33% (d) 40% Q45. Which of the following diseases are preventable by vaccine? 1.Tetanus 2. Polio 3.Leprosy 4.Pertusis Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and4 (c) 1,2 and4 (d) All of these Q46. Assertion (A): Red blood cells burst when placed in water. Reason (R): Due to osmosis, water enters into red blood cells. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q47. Malaria in the human body is caused by which one of the following organisms? (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Mosquito (d) Protozoan Q48. Which one of the following is responsible for the stimulating effect of tea? (a) Tannin (b) Steroid (c) Alkaloid (d) Flavonoid Q49. Golden fibre refers to (a) hemp (b) cotton (c) jute (d) nylon Q50. Chemically silk fibres are predominantly (a) Protein

MockTime.com (b) Carbohydrate (c) Complex lipid (d) Mixture of polysaccharide and fat Q51. Insects that can transmit diseases to human are referred to as (a) carriers (b) reservoirs (c) vectors (d) incubators Q52. Development of goitre (enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly due to deficiency of (a) sodium (b) iodine (c) calcium (d) iron Q53. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)? (a) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is increased (b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is decreased (c) RBC count increases (d) RBC count decreases Q54. 155. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.Amnion contains fluid. 2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo. Select the correct answer using the codesgiven below (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q55. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus. (b) Cell membrane is present both in plant and animal cells. (c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not found in eukaryotic cells. (d) Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic cells only. Q56. In the context of ecology and environment, what does the Red Data Book pertain to? (a) Details of harmful levels of various pollutants (b) A complete list of all endangered plants and animals

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(c) A description of the consequences of nuclear holocaust (d) A description of the sociological and psychological consequence of genetically modified plants and animals Q57. Consider the following statements with regard to Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 1. To meet SLR, Commercial banks can use cash only. 2. SLR is maintained by the banks with themselves. 3. SLR restricts the banks leverage in pumping more money into the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) only 2 Q58. Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through in inflationary pressures? 1. The direct taxes should be increased. 2. The interest rate should be reduced. 3. The public spending should be increased. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Q59. Consider the following statements 1. The recent decision of Government of India to partially decontrol the sugar industry gives the millers the freedom to sell sugar in open market and removes their obligation to supply sugar at subsidised rates to ration shops. 2. C. Rangarajan panel also suggested decontrolling of sugar industry in India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q60. Classification of an enterprise into public or private sector is based on (a) number of employees in the enterprise (b) ownership of assets of the enterprise (c) employment conditions for workers in the enterprise

MockTime.com (d) nature of products manufactured by the enterprise Q61. The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country and their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is termed as (a) Gross National Income (b) Net National Income (c) Gross Domestic Product (d) Net Domestic Product Q62. Commercial banks finance rural credit directly and through (a) NABARD (b) Rural Banks (c) Cooperative societies (d) State government Q63. The concept of Green Economy in the context of Rio+20 has the following features: 1.it seeks to calculate the economic growth by taking into account the cost of depletion of natural capital. 2.It takes into account the price of waste pollution. 3.It argues for a halt to development as it causes environmental degradation. 4.1, 2 and 3 above. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Q64. The reversal of British Indian Policy from free trade to discriminating protection in 1923 was the result of: (a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms (b) the recommendation of Fiscal Commission (c) Swadeshi movement (d) changes in American trade policies Q65. Which of the following can be termed an infrastructural bottleneck in the development of India‘s economy? (a) existence of a large variety of financial institutions (b) The federal nature of Indian polity (c) The volatility of the Indian rupee (d) Hey Delay in the administration of justice Q66. It has been estimated that rural poverty has increased after the launching of the New Economic Policy (1991). Which of the

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following factors may not be responsible for this? (a) Reduction in fertilizer subsidy (b) Reduction in development expenditure (c) Increase in the issue price of items under Public Distribution System (PDS)And)J (d) Contract farming Q67. It is alleged that industrial sickness is sometimes engineered by owners promoters for ulterior motives. Which of the following not an internal factor for such sickness? (a) Mismanagement (b) Diversion of funds (c) Technological obsolescence (d) Wrong dividend policy Q68. the index is (a) a combination of longevity and literacy (b) a composite of standard of living and health indices (c) an index of cost of living( (d) a composite of annual inflation and unemployment rate Q69. Who among the following had founded the Theosophical Society in the United States of America? (a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati (b) Madam Blavatsky (c) Madam Cama (d) Lala Hardayal

Q70. What is the correct sequence of the following events? 1. Bardoli Satyagraha 2. Rajkot Satyagraha 3. Champaran Satyagraha 4. Nagpur Satyagraha Codes: (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 Q71. The Doctrines of ‗Non-Violence‘ and ‗Civil Disobedience‘ associated with Mahatma Gandhi were influenced by the works of (a) Churchill-lrwin-Tolstoy (b) Ruskin-Tolstoy-Thoreau (c) Thoreau-Humen-Shaw (d) Cripps-Tolstov-Howes

MockTime.com Q72. Which one of the following inscriptions mentions Pulakesin II‘s military success against Harshavardhana? (a) Allahabad Pillar inscription (b) Aihole inscription (c) Damodarpur Copperplate inscription (d) Bilsad inscription Q73. Consider the following paragraph He was seriously injured in police lathi charge in Lahore during demonstrations against Simon Commission, for which he subsequently died in November, 1928. Later on, the British officer who was responsible for the lathi charge on him, was shot dead by Bhagat Singh and Rajguru. The revolutionary referred to in the above paragraph is (a) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (c) Mangal Singh (d) Motilal Nehru Q74. Consider the following statements about Dr Ram Manohar Lohia 1. He believed the Satyagraha without constructive work is like a sentence without a verb. 2. He wrote his PhD thesis paper on the topic of Salt Satyagraha, focusing on Mahatma Gandhi‘s socioeconomic theory. 3. He recognised that caste, more than class, was the huge stumbling block to India‘s progress. Which of the statements give above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Q75. In addition to Macaulay‘s Minutes on Education, another landmark draft is also attributed to him. Identify the draft from the following. (a) Draft of Indian Penal Code (b) Draft of Indian Forest Policy (c) Draft of the Zamindari Abolition Act (d) Draft of the Maritime Trade Policy Q76. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of Rig-Vedic Aryans? (a) They were acquainted with horses, chariots and the use of bronze (b) They were acquainted with the use of iron (c) They were acquainted with the cow, which formed the most important form of wealth

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(d) They were acquainted with the use of copper and the modern ploughshare Q77. Which one among the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct? (a) Pravara-Godavari Valley was the nuclear zone of Jorwe Culture (b) The main sites of Jorwe Culture are Daimabad, Inamgaon, Jorwe and Nevasa (c) At Daimabad, one gets archaeological evidence of symbolic burial (d) Practically all settlement in the Northern Deccan were suddenly deserted Q78. Which one among the following pairs is not properly matched? (a) Megasthenes: India (b) Ashvaghasa: Bddhacharita (c) Panini: Mahabhashya (d) Vishakhadatta: Mudrarakshasa Q79. The polity of the Harappan people, as derived from the material evidence, was (a) secular-federalist (b) theocratic-federalist (c) oligarchic (d) theocratic-unitary Q80. The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of (a) Chunar near Mirzapur (b) Lauriya in Nandangarh (c) Sarnath near Varanasi (d) Udayagiri near Bhubaneshwar Q81. Which one among the following was the primary reason behind the failure of the Young Bengal Movement in Bengal? (a) It did not appeal to educated people (b) Its economic programme was not popular (c) It was too radical (d) It did not have good leaders Q82. Consider the following statements about Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh 1. He was a staunch supporter of Indian National Congress. 2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was set-up with the objective of promoting learning of Islamic education among the

MockTime.com Muslims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q83. Which of the four linguistic regions in South India remained unaffected by the Non Cooperation Movement (1921-22)? (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka Q84. Which of the following features of the State of Arcot in 18th century South India are correct? 1. The founders of the dynasty that ruled Arcot were Daud Khan Panni and Sa'adatullah Khan. 2. Arcot became the site of a protracted struggle between the English and Dutch East India Companies from the 1740s. 3. Decentralization was a key feature of the State of Arcot in the 18th century. 4. The other major State to emerge in South India at this time was Mysore. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only Q85. In which of the following State is Kakrapar Nuclear Power Station located? (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat Q86. In which one of the following islands of India is an active volcano found? (a) Car Nicobar Island (b) Nancowry Island (c) Barren Island (d) Maya Bunder Island Q87. High spring tides occur at new Moon and full Moon because the (a) Moon and Earth are at right angles (b) Sun and Moon are at right angles (c) Sun, Earth and the Moon are in straight line (d) Sun and Earth are at right angles

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Q88. Which continent of the world does not have a desert? (a) Australia (b) Europe (c) Asia (d) North America Q89. The jet streams are (a) wind systems with a pronounced seasonal reverse at a direction (b) winds blowing from the subtropical highpressure belts towards the subpolar lowpressure belts (c) narrow meandering bands of swift winds which blow in the midlatitudes near the tropopause and encircle the globe (d) winds blowing from the subpolar lowpressure belts towards the subtropical highpressure belts Q90. Consider the following places of Kashmir region (1) Sri Nagar (2) Gilgit (3) Kargil (4) Banihal Arrange the above place from North to South using the code given below (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4 Q91. Which one among the following is the idealised global pattern of surface wind from the Equator to Pole? (a) Doldrum-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies (b) Easterlies-Westerlies-Trade WindEasterlies (c) Doldrum-Trade wind-Westerlies-Easterlies (d) Westerlies Trade Wind-Doldrum-Easterlies Q92. Global Positioning System (GPS) is associated with 1. determining latitude and longitude 2. constellation of satellites 3. US system of GPS and Russian system of GLONASS 4. navigation Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q93. Consider the following statements with regard to the mining industry of India

MockTime.com 1. The spatial distribution of minerals is uneven. 2. The mining industry since colonial days has been export-oriented. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q94. Which one among the following rivers does not flow into the Bay of Bengal? (a) Mahanadi (b) Cauveri (c) Tapti (d) Godavari Q95. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because (a) its concentration remains always higher than other gases (b) it is used in photosynthesis (c) it absorbs infrared radiation. (d) it emits visible radiation Q96. The riverbank is weakest where the river turns. This is because water (a) gets concentrated on the inner bank of the turn, making it denser (b) effectively bounces off the outer bank as it turns exerting an extra pressure on the bank (c) flows faster as it turns (d) reacts more effectively with the bank at a turn Q97. Statement I Tsunami is small in open ocean yet may be over 30 m high when it reaches a coastline. Statement II Tsunamis have long wavelength and they travel across the open ocean at high speed. As they approach shore, the wavelength decreases and the wave height increases. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q98. The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the following types of deposits? (a) Aeolian and glacial (b) Fluvial (c) Lacustrine (d) Volcanic Q99. 'Global Dimming' means

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(a) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere (b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots (c) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the Earth surface (d) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar regions Q100. Satellite having the same orbital period as the period of rotation of the Earth about its ouwn axis is known as (a) polar satellite (b) stationary satellite (c) geostationary satellite (d) INSAT Q101. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q102. Arrange the following states of India on the basis of conferring statehood (starting from the earliest): 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Nagaland 3. Sikkim 4. Meghalaya Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1 (b) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 (c) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 (d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3 Q103. In which one of the following Indian States is the game of polo said to have originated? (a) West Bengal (b) Meghalaya (c) Manipur (d) Sikkim Q104. Which one of the following countries has recently tested a two-stage satellite launch rocket named the Safir-e-Omid or the Ambassador of Peace? (a) Israel (b) Iran (c) Pakistan (d) Turkey Q105. Which one of the following is not and independent department under the Government of India? (a) Department of Atomic Energy (b) Department of Bio-Technology

MockTime.com (c) Department of space (d) Planning Commission Q106. Match the following Listl List II Military Academies in India Location A. High Altitude Warfare school - 1. Agra B. Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School - 2. Gulmarg C. Paratrooper's Training School - 3. Vairengte D. Combat Army Aviation Training School - 4. Nashik Road Codes A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 Q107. Launched recently by the Central Board of Excise and Customs, 'ACES is a (a) new centralised, web-based software application of the Board (b) service desk division of the Board for collection of service taxes (c) new division of the Board for disseminating information about the direct tax structure in force (d) new form of service tax return Q108. Which one of the following statements about WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) code is not correct? (a) The code is the core document that provides the framework for harmonized anti doping policies, rules and regulations within sport organisations and among public authorities. (b) The code entered into force from January 1, 2004. (c) Under the code, the use of any prohibited substance by an athlete for medical reasons is not possible. (d) Under the code, a sanction could be applied in cases where there is evidence that an anti-doping rule violation has occurred, but where there is no positive doping-control test. Q109. What is a green data centre? (a) A data centre created by environmentalists to keep record of green technology, clean production techniques. (b) A repository for the storage, management and dissemination of mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems developed to

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optimise energy efficiency and environmental impact (c) A data centre for green building for optimising of power consumption using energy efficient technology (d) A repository providing information about details of small scale industries adopting energy efficiency measures Q110. According to Goldman Sachs' review of emerging economies, by 2050 which one of the following would be the order of the largest economies in the world? (a) China-USA- India-Brazil-Mexico (b) USA-China-lndia-Brazil-Mexico (c) China-USA-Brazil-lndia-Mexico (d) USA-Mexico-China-India-Brazil Q111. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. The Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA) was first enforced in the hills of Asom. 2. The AFSPA is enforced in regions notified as 'disturbed area'. [2011-I] 3. Under the provisions of the Act, the Chief Minister of a state can declare the whole state or part of it as 'disturbed area'. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2 Q112. Which one of the following teams won the maximum number of Gold Medals in the 34th National Games 2011, held in Jharkhand? (a) Manipur (b) Services (c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra Q113. Which one among the following statements about NATO is not correct? (a) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe (b) The US is an ex officio member of NATO (c) Turkey is a member of NATO (d) NATO has 28 independent member states Q114. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) Due to border problems, India's trade with China did not register a quantum jump between the years 2001 - 2010

MockTime.com (b) The stand off between India and China on Pakistan and Arunachal Pradesh did not let India s trade to grow with China in the years 2001-2010 as much as it grew in the years 1991-2001 (c) While India-China trade has registered a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010, both the countries have ensured parity of trade (d) Inspite of border problems, India's trade with China registered a quantum jump during the years 2001 - 2010 Q115. Anna Hazare was awarded with the Padma Bhushan in recognition for (a) his war against corruption and launching Bhrashtachar Virodhi Jan Andolan (b) his service to the Indian Army (c) transforming a barren dry village called Ralegan Siddhi in Maharashtra's Ahmednagar district into a model village of self-sufficiency, eco-friendly and harmony (d) his remarkable social service in the Adivasi areas of Bihar Q116. The Government of India has recently made it mandatory for oil marketing companies to blend 5% ethanol with petrol. Which of the following is/are the likely consequence/ consequences of the policy? 1. Lower India's dependence on fossil oil. 2. Reduce fuel import bill. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q117. Which legendary actor has been awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award, 2012? (a) Shashi Kapoor (b) Pran Krishan Sikand (c) Anupam kher (d) Soumitra Chatterjee Q118. Which of the following nations were recently suspended with regard to the voting rights by the UNESCO for not paying their dues to it? 1. USA 2. Israel 3. Iran 4. Iraq Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 3 and 4

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(b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Q119. In May 2014, an agreement for credit of US $24 million (equivalent) from World Bank for additional financing for Uttarakhand Rural. Water Supply and Sanitation Project was signed. The objective/objectives of the agreement was/were 1. To improve the effectiveness of rural water supply and sanitation (RWSS) services through decentralization 2. To restore services of damaged schemes in the disaster affected areas in the State of Uttarakhand Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q120. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. ‗Yudh Abhyas 2014‘ was an India – USA military exercise. 2. ‗Yudh Abhyas 2014‘ was conducted in Himachal Pradesh. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. d 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. b 54. c 55. b 56. b 57. C 58. A 59. c 60. B 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. b 65. d 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. c 79. d 80. a 81. c 82. d 83. d 84. b 85. d 86. c 87. c 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. c 94. c 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. a 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. b 105. d 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. b 110. a 111. a 112. b 113. a 114. d 115. c 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. c 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4.

MockTime.com 5. An a-particle is identical with helium nuclei. It consists of2 protons and2 neutrons and represented by2He4. 6. A chemical change a new substance is formed. During crystallisation of table salt from sea water no new substance is formed hence, it is not a chemical change. 7. Kevlar, a polymeric material is used for making bullet proof jacket. 8. Superphosphate of lime can be easily assimilated by plants because it is soluble in water. 9. Silicosis is a chronic lung disease caused by breathing in silica dust. Silicosis (silico tuberculosis) occurs in workers whose occupation is related to pottery, ceramic, and glass industry. 10. All Alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis because all bases are not soluble in water but alkalis like soap are water soluble bases. 11. Catalysts are chemical substances used in chemical reactions that increases or decreases the rate of reaction without taking part in reaction positive catalysts speed up the reactions, where as negative catalysts slow them down. 12. 13. NaCl has same molecular weight and equivalent weight Equivalent weight of salt = Molecular weight of salt Total charge on cation Molecular weight of NaCl =23 +35.5 =58.5 \ Equivalent weight of NaCl =58.51 =58.5 14. 15. 16. 17. Total internal reflection is responsible for mirage formation in deserts. 18. By the relation in different temperature scales C 0 5 - = F 32 K 273 R 0 9 54 -- - = = We can calculate that temperature which differ by 10° on the celsius scale must differ by 18° on the fahrenheit scale. 19. When a body is immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force on it, called buoyant force. and buoyant force µ density of fluid. As the density of sea water is higher than that of the fresh water. So extra buoyant force and ship will rise a little higher. 20. Barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear clearly. 21. The sun is the star at the centre of the solar system. It generates its energy by nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into

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helium. 2 2 2 41 1 1 11 2 1 0 H H H He H n 21.6Mev + + ® +++ 22. The upper and lower portions in common type of bifocal lenses are convex and concave respectively. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 (a) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. 30. Sarkaria Commission was set up by the central government of India in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India. 31. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar became the Speaker of the Provisional Parliament on 26 November 1949 and continued to occupy the office till the 1st Lok Sabha that was constituted in 1952. 32. . P V Narasimha Rao could not vote for himself during vote of confidence. 33. OnAugust 20, 1979, Charan Singh resigned without moving the motion after the Congress withdrew support. 34. Power sharing helps in reducing the conflict between various social groups. Hence, power sharing is necessary for maintaining social harmony and peace.Power sharing helps in avoiding the tyranny of majority. The tyranny of majority not only destroys the minority social groups but also the majority social group. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decision making.People's voice forms the basis of a democratic government (people's participation at different levels of government). 35. 'Adjournment' refers to postpone the further transaction of the business for specified time by the presiding officer of the House. Adjournment terminates the sitting of the House which meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting. Adjournment sine die refers to termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for the next sitting. 36. K. Kamaraj resigned from the Tamil Nadu Chief Minister Post on 2 October 1963. He proposed that all senior Congress leaders should resign from their posts and devote all

MockTime.com their energy to the revitalization of the Congress. This is known as the Kamaraj Plan. Six Union Ministers and six Chief Ministers including Lal Bahadur Shastri, Jagjivan Ram, Morarji Desai, Biju Patnaik and S.K. Patil followed suit and resigned from their posts. 37. Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model. 38. The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it. 39. President's rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery of an Indian state. In the event that government in a state is not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes under the direct control of the central government, with executive authority exercised through the Governor instead of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is invoked if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any states of India. 40. Cabinet collective responsibility is a tradition in parliamentary governments in which the prime minister is responsible for appointing the cabinet ministers. It is the Prime Minister who enforces collective responsibility amongst the Ministers through his ultimate power to dismiss a Minister. No person shall be nominated to the cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister. Secondly, no person shall be retained as a Member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he should be dismissed. In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. 41. On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advisor. These members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopala swami Ayengar, B L Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft Constitution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947.This is Ambedkar's second

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argument rested on the legitimacy of the democratic system. 42. It does not permit the OCI to vote in general election in India. On the occasion of first Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas on 9th January 2003, former Prime Minister AtalBihari Vajpayee had made an announcement for grant of dual citizenship to PIOs. The necessary Legislation was introduced by the Government of India in Parliament in May 2003. 43. 44. 45. Polio and pertusis are caused by virus. So, these can be controlled by vaccines. 46. 47. Malaria is a mosquito borne disease of humans and other animals caused by Plasmodium protozoan. Severe disease is largely caused by Plasmodium falciparum whereas mild forms are due to P vivax, Poval and P malariae. 48. The stimulating nature of tea is due to alkaloid caffeine found in tea. Caffeine is bitter due to white crystalline xanthine alkaloid. 49. Golden fibre denotes to jute because of its colour. Jute is grown as cash crop. Jute is used for green manure and has much higher CO2 assimilation rate. 50. Silk fibres consist of protein like wool. It is produced by pupa of silk insect. 51. Insects that transmit diseases to humans are known as vectors. Insects may carry infection mechanically on feet or mouth parts, by passage through the digestive tract but without the insect being infected or by becoming an intermediate host with some part of the parasite‘s life cycle occuring in the insect tissue. 52. The cause of goitre is normally due to lack of iodine. Iodine plays an important role in the synthesis of thyroxin hormone from thyroid gland. 53. If human blood becomes acidic (low pH), The amount of CO2 is increased and O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin is reduce d. 54. Amnion is a membrane filled with fluid which covers the embryo. The embryos sex may be determined by ultrasound as early as11 weeks pregnancy. 55. A prokaryote is a single-celled organism that lacks a membrane-bound nucleus (karyon). Plant and animal cells are both eukaryotic cells, so they have several features in common, such as the presence of a cell

MockTime.com membrane, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. Chloroplasts are found in plant cells which is eukaryoti c. Ribosomes are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. 56. Red Data Book is related with a complete list of all endangered species. 57. SLR used by bankers indicates the minimum percentage of deposits that the banks have to maintain in the form of gold, cash or other approved securities. 58. Cost-push inflation occurs when businesses respond to rising costs, by increasing their prices to protect profit margins. There are many reasons why costs might rise: Component costs, Rising labour costs and higher indirect taxes imposed by the government. So, the direct taxes should be increased when an economy is going through in inflationary pressures. 59. The decision to partially decontrol the sugar sector was taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs a(CCEA). This gives millers the freedom to sell in the open market and remove their obligation to supply the sweetener at subsidised rates to ration shops. The Rangarajan Committee has recommended total decontrol of the sugar industry by doing away with the levy sugar obligation, release mechanism and freeing of export-import. 60. A company organized for commercial purposes is called an enterprise. Classification of an enterprise into public or private sector is based on ownership of assets of the enterprise. 61. The sum of a nation's gross domestic product (GDP) plus net income received from overseas. Gross national income (GNI) is defined as the sum of value added by all producers who are residents in a nation, plus any product taxes (minus subsidies) not included din output, plus income received from abroad such as employee compensation and property income. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. The Theosophical Society was formed by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge and others in November 1875 in New York. The aim of the

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society was to promote spiritual principles and search for truth known as Theosophy. 70. • Champaran Satyagrah - 1917 • Nagpur Satyagrah - 1923 • Bardoli Satyagrah - 1928 • Rajkot Satyagrah- 1939 71. Walden Pond Thoreau wrote an essay on Civil Disobedience where he advocated the doctrine of peaceful resistance. He thought that if any law was felt to be unjust, or unnecessary, it was incumbent on the individual to refuse to obey that law in any nonviolent way that they could harness. John Ruskin (an English art critic) , Leo Tolstoy (a Russian count) and Henry David Thoreau (an American naturalist/ backwoodsman) , three apparently very different individuals, each from very different backgrounds, but all shared similar, interwoven values. The book that had made such an immediate and profound impact on Gandhi was John Ruskin's seminal work Unto This Last. Another deep influence on Gandhi's thinking was the writings of Leo Tolstoy, especially the essay The Kingdom of God is Within You which mapped out Tolstoy's individualistic interpretation of Christian living. 72. Pulikeshi II (610-642 CE) is the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty.The Aihole inscription describes how the mighty Harsha lost his harsha (joy) when he suffered the ignominy of defeat. Pulikeshi entered into a treaty with Harsha, with the Narmada River designated as the border between the Chalukya Empire and that of Harshavardhana. 73. In 1928, the British government set up the Commission, headed by Sir John Simon, to report on the political situation in India. The Indian political parties boycotted the Commission, because it did not include a single Indian in its membership, and it met with country-wide protests. When the Commission visited Lahore on 30 October 1928, Lajpat Rai led silent march in protest against it. The superintendent of police, James A. Scott, ordered the police to lathicharge. He became seriously injured and died on 17 November 1928.To take avenge of the death of Lala Lajpat Rai, Bhagat Singh and his associates plotted the assassination of Scott. But, the revolutionaries, mistaking J.P. Saunders, an Assistant Superintendent of Police, as Scott, killed him instead. 74. Ram Manohar Lohia- An Indian politician and activist who was a prominent figure in socialist politics and in the movement toward

MockTime.com Indian independence. In 1934 Lohia became actively involved in the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) , Lohia wrote his PhD thesis paper on the topic of Salt Taxation in India,focusing on Gandhi's socio-economic theory. "Where caste prevails, opportunity and ability are restricted to evernarrowing circles of the people",these words from Ram Manohar truly project what he thought of ever existent caste system in India. 75. The Indian Penal code was drafted in 1860 on the recommendations of first law commission of India established in 1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Thomas Babington Macaulay. It came into force in British Indi a in 1862. Indian Penal Code (IPC) is the main criminal code of India. It is a comprehensive code intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law. 76. Rig Vedic Aryans were not acquainted to the use of Iron. 77. Jorwe is a village and an archaeol ogical site located on the Pravara, a tributary of theGodavari River in Sangamner taluka of Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra. This culture can broadly be dated 1400- 700 BC. 78. Ashtadhyayi, (Sanskrit grammar) written in the 6th to 5th century BCE by the Indian grammarian Panini 79. The polity of the Harappan people as derived from the material evidence was a theocratic-unitary. 80. The highly polished monolithic Ashoka pillar usually with small black spots were quarried from the Chunar near Varanasi. 81. In fact, their radicalism was bookish; they failed to come to grips with the Indian reality. 82. He was not supporter of Indian national Congress.He was one of those early pioneers who recognized the critical role of education for the empowerment of the poor and backward Muslim community. In more than one ways, Sir Syed was one of the greatest social reformers and a great national builder of modern India. So with the aim of promoting social and Economic development of Indian Muslim community, Syed Ahmad Khan founded the Muhammadan Anglo Oriental College (Now Aligarh Muslim University) in 1875. 83. Most of the South Indians participated in the movement except Karnataka which remained unaffected. 84.

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85. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is situated in Gujarat. It consists of two 220 MW pressurized water reactors with heavy water as moderator (PHWR).It was commissioned in 1993. 86. Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea. It is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia. 87. High spring tides occur at new moon and full moon because the Sun,Earth and Moon are in straight line. 88. Europe does not have a desert. It has Accona desert- a semi-desert in central Italy. 89. The jet streams are strong, generally westerly winds concentrated in a relatively narrowand shallow stream in the upper troposphere of the earth. 90. Kashmir region from North to South is Gilgit- KargilSri Nagar- Banihal 91. Winds from equator to poles: DoldrumTrade Winds- Westerlies- Easterlies 92. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellitebased system that can be used to locate positions anywhere on the earth. It is associated with longitude and latitude. It is a "constellation" of 24 well-spaced satellites that orbit the Earth and make it possible for people with ground receivers to pinpoint their geographic location. The Russian government has developed a system, similar to GPS, called GLONASS. The US began the GPS project in 1973. 93. Both statements are correct. 94. Tapti does not flow in to the Bay of Bengal. The river rises in the eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh and flows into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea. 95. Greenhouse gases catch the sun's radiation on its way back into space and reflect some of that warmth back to Earth, increasing temperatures. Carbon dioxide is known as greenhouse gas because of their ability to trap and reflect the sun's radiation back to Earth. 96. Water effectively bounces off the outer bank as it turns exerting an extra pressure on the bank. This is why the river bank is weakest where the river turns. 97. In the open ocean the height of tsunami is less than 1 meter however, its height increases up to 15 meters or more at shallow coastal water. The wavelength in the open ocean is between 650 to 960 km/h. 98. The word Karewa in Kashmiri dialect means, "elevated table-land."It was used for an unconsolidated to semiconsolidated sand-

MockTime.com clay-conglomerate sequence. The Karewas in Kashmir valley are some 367 meters thick lacustrine deposits. They cover the area between the Jhelum alluvium in the north and Pir Panjal mountains in the south. 99. Fault trap is a kind of structural trap.Here, the fracture and slippage of rock along a fault line may bring an impermeable stratum in contact with a layer of permeable reservoir rock and thus forms a barrier to petroleum migration. 100. Numerous grape varieties are cultivated in France including both internationally wellknown and obscure local varieties.Hence, Southern part of France is famous for wine making industry. 101. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh. Sabarigiri Hydroelectric Power Plantis located at Moozhiyar, Pathanamthitta district, Kerala, India. Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha. Sileru Dam is situated on the boarder of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. 102. Arrangement of the states of India on the basis of conferring statehood is as follows: 1. Nagaland- 1963 2. Meghalaya 1970 3. Sikkim- 1975 4. Arunachal Pradesh1987 103. The origins of the game in Manipur are traced to early precursors of Sagol Kangjei. This was one of three forms of hockey in Manipur, the other ones being field hockey (called Khong Kangjei) and wrestling-hockey (called Mukna Kangjei). In Manipur, polo is traditionally played with seven players to a side. 104. The Safir-e-Omid is the name of the first Iranian expendable launch vehicle that is able to place a satellite in orbit. 105. Planning Commission is an independent department under the GOI. Department of Atomic Energy is a department under PMO, Department of Bio-Technology and Department of space are under ministry of Science and Technology. 106. High Altitude Warfare School - Gulmarg (Jammu and Kashmir) Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School - Vairengte (Mizoram) Paratrooper's Training School Agra Combat Army Aviation Training School Nasik Road 107. ACES a new centralized web-based software application of the board which was

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launched by Central Board of Excise and Customs. 108. 109. A green data centre is a repository for the storage, management and dissemination of data in which the mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems are designed for maximum energy efficiency and minimum environmental impact. The construction and operation of a green data centre includes advanced technologies and strategies. The examples are: · Minimizing the footprints of the buildings · The use of low-emission building materials, carpets and paints · Sustainable landscaping · Waste recycling 110. According to Goldman Sachs review of emerging economies, by 2050 the largest economies in the world will be as follows: China, USA, India, Brazil, and Mexico. 111. The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act of 1958 (AFSPA) is an act to enable certain special powers to be conferred upon members of the armed forces in disturbed areas in the States of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and the Union Territories of Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. The AFSPA gives the armed forces enormous powers to shoot, arrest and search in the name of aiding civil power. It was first applied to the north eastern states of Assam and Manipur. 112. Services(SSCB) won the maximum number of gold medals (70) in the 34th National Games 2011 held in Jharkhand. 113. NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty which was signed on 4 April 1949. The organization constitutes a system of collective defence whereby its member states agree to mutual defence in response to an attack by any external party. NATO has 28 members, mainly in Europe and North America. Greece and Turkey became members of the Alliance in 1990. 114. 115. Anna Hazare is an Indian social activist who led movements to promote rural development, increase government transparency, and investigate and punish corruption in public life. Hazare also contributed to the development and structuring of Ralegan Siddhi, a village in Parner taluka of Ahmednagar district, Maharashtra. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan award in 1992 for his efforts in establishing this village as a model for others.

MockTime.com 116. In 2013, India was the fourth-largest consumer and net importer of crude oil and petroleum products in the world after the United States, China, and Japan. India's dependence on imported fossil fuels rose to 38% in 2012, despite the country having significant domestic fossil fuel resources. To reduce fuel import bill, the government has recently made it mandatory for oil marketing companies to blend 5% ethanol with petrol. 117. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in cinema. Pran won the prize in 2012. 118. Recently UNESCO suspended voting rights of USA and Israel. 119. The objective of the URWSSP is to improve effectiveness of rural water supply and sanitation (RWSS) services through decentralization and restore service of damaged schemes in the disaster affected areas of Uttarakhand. 120. 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' was a fourteen daylong Indo-US military exercise held in Uttarakhand to strengthen and broaden inter-operability and cooperation between the two armies.

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CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Following the addition of artificial or nonartificial substances such as nitrates and phosphates through fertilizers or sewage to a fresh water body, there is: 1.Great increase of phytoplankton 2.Enhanced growth of aquatic vegetation i.e. phytoplankton and algal bloom 3.Natural eutrophication 4. Human-caused eutrophication (a) 1,2,3 (b) 1,2,4 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2, 3, 4 Q2. Unique antimicrobial compounds that may lead to the use of more effective antibiotic treatments without the development of antibiotic resistance are extracted from: (a) amphibians (b) alligators (c) wormwood plant (d) snake venom Q3. The major threat to the Asiatic black bear is: 1.poaching 2. loss of habitat 3.increase confrontation with men 4. commercial trade in bear parts (a) 1 only (b) 2 , 3 (c) 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 Q4. Which of the following swathes of healthy forests be totally out of bounds for all mining activities and coal excavation to preserve its/their biodiversity biomass and prevent any further loss of endangered species? 1.National Parks 2.Wildlife Sanctuaries 3.Tiger Reserves 4.Wildlife corridors The correct response is : (a) 1,2 (b) 2,3,4 (c) 1,2,3,4 (d) 3 only

Q5. Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials? (a) Rayon (b) Nylon (c) Polyester (d) Polystyrene Q6. Statement I: Addition of water to an aqueous solution of HC1 decreases the pH. Statement II: Addition of water suppresses the ionisation of HC1. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q7. The coil in a heater is made of (a) nichrome (b) tungsten (c) copper (d) iron Q8. Which one of the following is not a periodic property i.e., does not show any trend on moving from one side to the other in the periodic table? (a) Atomic size (b) Valency (c) Radioactivity (d) Electronegativity Q9. Sacrificial anode protects iron or ships, underground pipelines etc from rusting, a process known as cathodic protection. Which one of the following metals cannot be used as a sacrificial anode? (a) Tin (b) Zinc (c) Magnesium (d) Aluminium Q10. The pH of fresh ground water slightly decreases upon exposure to air because (a) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved in the water (b) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water (c) the dissolved carbon dioxide of the ground water escapes into air

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(d) the dissolved oxygen of the ground water escapes into air

(c) A B both are true (d) A B both are false

Q11. Which allotropy of carbon is in rigid three- dimensional structure? (a) Graphite (b) Fullerene (c) Diamond (d) Carbon black

Q17. Which one of the following common devices works on the basis of the principle of mutual induction? (a) Tubelight (b) Transformer (c) Photodiode (d) LED

Q12. Nitric oxide pollution can lead to all of the following, except (a) leaf spotting in plants (b) bronchitis related respiratory problems in human (c) production of corrosive gases through photochemical reaction (d) silicosis in human Q13. A metallic plate sticks firmly on the mouth of a water vessel made from another metal. By way of heating, one can detach the plate from the vessel. This is because heat expands (a) the vessel only (b) both the vessel and the plate equally (c) the vessel more than the plate (d) the vessel and contracts the plate

Q18. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. Which one among the following will be the outcome, if the red light is replaced by blue light? (a) Bands disappear (b) Diffraction pattern becomes broader and further apart (c) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded together (d) No change Q19. Viewfinders, used in automobiles to locate the position of the vehicles behind, are made of (a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror (c) convex mirror (d) parabolic mirror

Q14. F2C = CF2 is a monomer of (a) teflon (b) glyptal (c) nylon-6 (d) buna-S Q15. Consider the following statements: 1.HPLC stands for high performance liquid chromatography. 2.HPLC is used to separate isomeric compounds. 3.HPLC operations involve a solid and a liquid phase. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Q16. A. Zeroeth law of thermodynamics states that thermodynamic equilibrium is an equivalence relation. B. First law of thermodynamics deals with the conservation of energy. Select the correct option: (a) A is true (b) B is true

Q20. The best colours for a sun umbrella will be (a) black on top and red on inside (b) black on top and white on inside (c) red on top and black on inside (d) white on top and black on inside Q21. By what mechanism does scent spread all over the room if the lid is opened? (a) Pressure in the bottle (b) Compression from the bottle (c) Diffusion (d) Osmosis Q22. Tungsten is used for the construction of filament in electric bulb because of its (a) high specific resistance (b) low specific resistance (c) high light emitting power (d) high melting point

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Q23. A wire-bound standard resistor used manganin or constantan. It is because (a) these alloys are cheap and easily available (b) they have high resistivity (c) they have low resistivity (d) they have resistivity which almost remains unchanged with temperature Q24. A rocket and a jet engine differ because. 1. Their working principles are entirely different 2.A rocket uses only liquid fuels whereas a jet can use solid fuels as well 3.While a rocket carries its own oxygen supply a jet draws its air out of the atmosphere 4.A rocket can propel vehicles into outer space whereas a jet cannot Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2,3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1,3 and 4 Q25. Consider the following statements: Doppler effect is applied to find out. 1.Whether a star is approaching earth or receding away from it. 2.The speed of rotation of the sun 3.The density of a star Of these statements (a) Only 1 is correct (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct (c) All three are correct (d) None is correct Q26. Which one of the following is not a vector? (a) Energy (b) Force (c) Momentum (d) Velocity Q27. Consider the following statements: 1.If an iron ball and a wooden ball of the same weight are dropped simultaneously from an aircraft, the iron ball will strike the ground first. 2.Upward viscous force depends on the size of the falling object. Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only

MockTime.com Q28. Electric Appliances have star ratings (up to 5 stars) on them. More the number of stars: (1)Longer the life span of the appliance (2)More stringent the quality checks (3) Higher the energy efficiency of the appliance Which of the above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Q29. Who among the following can be the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission? (a) A Member of either House of Parliament (b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India (c) A social worker actively involved in the promotion of human rights (d) Q30. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section there of shall have the right. 1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. 3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Q31. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the tenures of the following Presidents of Indian National Congress? Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 Q32. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan Parishad? (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh

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Q33. For which one of the following Judgements of the Supreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of India case is considered a landmark? (a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends (b) Abolishing untouchability from the country (c) The basic structures of the Constitution, as defined in the preamble, cannot be changed (d) Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under any circumstance Q34. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights which follow from some other provision in the Constitution. 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q35. Statement I By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status. Statement II This law enables them to participate in economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to various legislati ve bodies in India. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q36. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India? 1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise. 2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.

MockTime.com 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 Q37. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it (a) uses value loaded words (b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers (c) is a source of power and limitation (d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution Q38. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha 1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member. notice of this date. 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member notice of this date. 3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Q39. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between centre and state falls under (a) advisory jurisdiction (b) original jurisdiction (c) appellate jurisdiction (d) constitutional jurisdiction Q40. The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant fox 1. the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India

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2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral 3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these Q41. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required? (a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters (b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or of alternation of areas of existing states (c) For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax (d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which states are interested Q42. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the (a) President of India (b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet (c) Election Commission of India (d) Parliament Q43. Under one of the following Articles, an assured special financial assistance for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes has been provided: (a) 275 (b) 275(1) (c) 275(2) (d) 275(3) Q44. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1.The State Election Commission supervises and conducts the elections of Panchayats and Municipalities in the State 2.It also supervises and conducts the elections of the state assemblies and the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

MockTime.com (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Q45. In the context of ecology and environment, what does the Red Data Book pertain to? (a) Details of harmful levels of various pollutants (b) A complete list of all endangered plants and animals (c) A description of the consequences of nuclear holocaust (d) A description of the sociological and psychological consequence of genetically modified plants and animals Q46. Which one of the following is correct? A concrete wall generally? (a) only reflects sound (b) only absorbs sound (c) only transmits sound (d) absorbs and transmits sound Q47. Which one of the following diseases is caused by virus? (a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid (c) Influenza (d) Diphtheria Q48. Consider the follwing statement about bioremediation. 1.It may be defined as any process that uses microorganisms or their enzymes to return the environment altered by contaminants to its original condition. 2. Bioremediation may be employed in order to attack specific contaminants, such as chlorinated pesticides that are degraded by bacteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) 1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q49. Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles? (a) Saffron (b) Cinnamon (c) Olive oil (d) Ajinomoto

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Q50. Which among the following are the most important raw materials for the manufacturing of soap? (a) Fats and caustic alkali (b) Fats and potash (c) Fats and acid (d) Vegetable oil and potash Q51. Photochemical smog occurs in (a) cool and humid climate (b) warm, dry and sunny climate (c) cool, dry and sunny climater (d) warm and humid climate Q52. Endosulfan, which has been in news these days, is (a) a pesticide (b) a fertiliser (c) a sulpha drug (d) an antibiotic Q53. Cancer is more common in older people because (a) their immune systems have degenerated (b) the supply of certain hormones declines with age (c) their bodies are unable to adjust to the changing environment (d) they have accumulated more mutations Q54. Among the following animals, choose the one having three pairs of legs. (a) Spider (b) Scorpion (c) Bug (d) Mite Q55. Which one among the following statements is not true for Mammals? (a) They possess hair on the body. (b) Some of them lay eggs. (c) Their heart is three chambered (d) Some are aquatic. Q56. Which of the following is not a bird? (a) Bat (b) Emu (c) Kiwi (d) Ostrich Q57. Consider the following statements relating to estimation of National Income. 1. Foreigners working in India Embassies are normal residents of India.

MockTime.com 2. Foreigners working in the office of WHO, World Bank, UNO etc, located in India are not normal residents of India. 3. Indians working in foreign embassies in India are not normal residents of India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these Q58. Consider the following statements 1. High growth will led to inflation. 2. High growth will lead to deflation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q59. In India, the price of petroleum products has been deregulated mainly to (a) reduce the burden of subsidies given to the oil companies (b) discourage the exploration of oil reserves in the country (c) discourage the demand for private vehicles (d) curb the use of black money in the economy Q60. Which of the following statements about India's unorganised sector are true? 1. Labour is more in number than that in the organised sector. 2. Job security and work regulation are better in unorganised sector. 3. They are usually not organised into trade unions. 4. Workers are usually employed for a limited number of days. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 Q61. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue increases with increase in output. 2. When marginal revenue is zero, total revenue is maximum. 3. When marginal revenue becomes negative, total revenue falls with increase in output.

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Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q62. Which of the following in respect of Indian agriculture is not correct? (a) India is the third largest producer of chemical fertilizers (b) India is the second largest producer of vegetables (c) India is the largest producer of coconuts (d) India is the largest producer of mango, banana, cheeku and acid lime. Q63. Which entity holds the Number 1 position among Indian international trading companies? (a) Tata Exports (b) State Trading Company (c) Reliance Industries (d) MMTC Q64. Under the Buffer Stocking Policy of food grains, the peak storage of food grains to be maintained in the Central Pool by the public agencies will be on: (a) 1 April (b) 1 October (c) 1 July (d) 1 December Q65. Economists explain that India needs to increase its rate of savings from the present rate. An obstacle to this is: (a) the prevalence of conspicuous consumption (b) the absence of a good network of financial institutions in the rural areas (c) erosion in the value of savings as a result of inflation (d) the availability of white goods Q66. There is, in theory, justification for subsidising merit goods because: (a) the benefits go to the individual but the costs are borne by the society (b) the enjoyment of these goods by one is not at the expanse of similar enjoyment by another (c) these goods benefit not only the individual but also the society at large (d) the distribution of these goods are determined solely by the merit of the recipient

MockTime.com Q67. The British developed Indian railway system in such a way as to facilitate traffic between: (a) the capital city and hill resorts (b) the metro cities (c) sources of raw material and production centers (d) the sources of raw materials and ports Q68. Open Market Operations are: (a) activities of SEBI registered brokers (b) selling of currency by RBI (c) issue of gilt-edged securities by the government (d) sale of shares by FIl‘s Q69. Who among the following was not a party to the coalition that fought against the English in the Battle of Buxar? (a) Mir Kasim (b) Mir Jafar (c) Shuja-ud-daulah (d) Shah Alam II

Q70. Who among the following Urdu poets was invited to the Second and Third Round Table Conference? (a) Faiz Ahmad (b) Josh Malihabadi (c) Muhammad Iqbal (d) Firaq Gorakhpuri Q71. The Ashtadhyayi of Panini, the Mahabhasya of Patanjali and the Kashika Vritti of Jayaditya deal with (a) Principles of Law (b) Principles of Phonetics (c) Principles of Grammar (d) Principles of Linguistics Q72. Which one of the following statements regarding Harappan civilisation is correct? (a) The standard Harappan seals were made of clay (b) The inhabitants of Harappa had neither knowledge of copper nor bronze (c) The Harrapan civilisation was rural based (d) The inhabitants of Harappan grew and used cotton

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Q73. Which among the following are the five principles of peaceful co-existence of Panchsheel as outlined by Jawaharlal Nehru? (a) Mutual respect, military collaboration, economic collaboration, de-colonisation and territorial integrity (b) Mutual respect for each other territorial integrity and sovereignty, non-aggression, non-interference, equality and mutual benefit and peaceful co-existence (c) Peaceful co-existence, economic collaboration cultural interaction, territorial integrity and decolonisation (d) Disarmament, peaceful co-existence, economic collaboration, cultural interaction and territorial integrity Q74. Which of the following statements relating to the NonAlignment Movement is/are not correct? 1. Non-alignment came to symbolise the struggle of India and other newly independent nations to retain and strengthen their independence from colonialism and imperialism. 2. Non-alignment advanced the process of democratisation of international relations. 3. Military alliances formed a major part of non-alignment. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 Q75. Which of the following statements regarding the American Revolution is/are correct? 1. The American Revolution was a conflict between British settlers and native Americans. 2. The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament in which the Americans had no representation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q76. The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the stories of the various birth of Buddha are (a) Vinaya pitakas

MockTime.com (b) Sutta pitakas (c) Abhidamma pitakas (d) Jatakas Q77. Match the following List 1 - List II A. lyothere Thass - 1. Satyashodhak Samaj B. Jyotiba Phule - 2. Dravida Kazhagam C. John Rathinam - 3. Self Respect Movement D. E V Ramaswami - 4. Dravida Mahajana Sabha Naickar Codes: A B C D A BCD (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 124 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 214 Q78. The Dhamma propagated by Ashoka was (a) the tenets of Buddhism (b) a mixture of the philosophies of Ajivikas and Charvakas (c) a system of morals consistent with the tenets of most of the sects of the time (d) the religious policy of the state Q79. Several nationalist leaders in India wrote commentaries on the Bhagvad Geeta to argue the case for an ethical foundation to Indian nationalism, who among the following is an exception to it? (a) Sri Aurobindo (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Ram Manohar Lohia Q80. In the Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, ‗Brihat Samhita‘. It was a treatise on (a) astronomy (b) statecraft (c) ayurvedic system of medicine. (d) economics Q81. Who among the following first used the word ‗Swarajya‘ in its political sense and accepted Hindi as the national language of India? (a) Rammohan Roy (b) Swami Vivekananda (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Q82. Consider the following statements

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1. B G Tilak founded the Home Rule League in April 1916, in Maharashtra. 2. N C Kelkar was not associated with Home Rule Movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q83. Which of the following statements about the penetration of English into Bengal is/are correct? 1. Job Charnock arrived in Sutanati in August 1690 and laid the foundation of Calcutta which later became the heart of the British Indian Empire. 2. The French East India Company built a fort near the Fort William in Calcutta. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q84. Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century North India is/are not correct: 1. The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Neamat Khan who introduced the khayal form. 2. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would receive more employment and patronage. 3. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based gharanas. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Q85. Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Q86. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Country Currency A. Brazil Reals B. China Yuan

MockTime.com C. Mexico Pesos D. Thailand Ringgit (a) (b) (c) (d) Q87. Leaching is the maximum in the soil type of (a) Laterite (b) Red (c) Regur (d) Desert Q88. The hill range that separates the State of Manipur from the State of Nagaland is known as (a) Arakan hills (b) Patkai hills (c) Barail hills (d) Manipur hills Q89. The concept of sustainable development relates to (a) consumption levels (b) exhaustible resources (c) social equity (d) intergenerational equity Q90. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in the increasing order of salinity concentration? (a) Gulf of California, Baltic Sea, Red Sea, North Sea (b) Baltic Sea, North Sea, Gulf of California, Red Sea (c) Red Sea, Gulf of California, North Sea, Baltic: Sea (d) North Sea, Gulf of California, Baltic Sea, Red Sea Q91. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Kuroshio: Warm ocean current (b) Labrador: Warm ocean current (c) Benguela: Cold ocean current (d) Oyashio: Cold ocean current Q92. The angular speed of a whirlwind in a Tornado towards the centre (a) decreases rapidly (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) slowly becomes zero

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Q93. Consider the following statements about black soil of India 1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet. 2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as well as phosphorus required for the growth of plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q94. How many kilometres are represented by 1° of latitude? (a) 321 km (b) 211 km (c) 111 km (d) 91 km Q95. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) Trophic dynamics represents the transfer of energy from one trophic level to another in a food chain (b) In deeper parts of oceans, primary production remains almost nil (c) The primary consumers are called autotrophs (d) The decomposes are called saprotrophs Q96. Which among the following cities of India will have mid day Sun exactly overhead only a year? (a) Delhi and Chennai (b) Srinagar and Darjeeling (c) Hyderabad and Kohima (d) Nagpur and Kolkata Q97. Statement I The planet Neptune appears blue in colour. Statement II The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of Neptune is responsible for its colour (a) (b) (c) (d) Q98. Which one among the following is not an igneous rock? (a) Granite (b) Basalt (c) Gabbro (d) Gneiss

MockTime.com Q99. Oil is found in petroliferous rock. Which one among the following structures demonstrates an ideal trap? (a) Horizontal structure (b) Fault structure (c) Synclinal structure (d) Anticlinal structure Q100. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q101. Which one of the following is a landlocked harbour? (a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Ennore (c) Mumbai (d) Haldia Q102. Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that describes the large scale motions of Earth's lithosphere. Which one among the following statements regarding Plate tectonics is not correct? (a) Tectonic plates are composed of Oceanic lithosphere and thicker Continental lithosphere (b) Tectonic plates are able to move because the Earth's lithosphere has a higher strength than the underlying asthenosphere (c) The Earth's lithosphere is broken up into Tectonic Plates (d) Along divergent plate boundaries, subduction carries plates into the mantle Q103. In which one of the following years did the Right to information Act come into force? (a) 2003 (b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2006 Q104. Which one of the following countries has adopted a new Constitution in the year 2008 aiming to pursue a modern, multi party, democratic system and giving more power to the judiciary and legislature? (a) Japan (b) Bhutan (c) Maldives (d) Singapore Q105. Consider the following statements about the Treaty of Lisbon (2007)

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1. This is an international agreement signed to change the functioning of European Union. 2. To enter into legal force, the treaty must be ratified by at least 3/4th member States of the European Union. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q106. Which one of the following statements regarding Bharat Ratna Award is not correct? (a) The original specifications for the award called for a circular Gold Medal, 35 mm in diameter, with the sun and the Hindi legend 'Bharat Ratna' above and a floral wreath below. The reverse was to carry the state emblem and motto. (b) The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954 (c) Bharat Ratna is awarded to Indian citzens only (d) The first ever Indian to receive this award was the famous scientist, Chandrasekhara Ventkata Raman Q107. Piramal Life Science is a/an (a) Life Insurance Company (b) Drug Research Company (c) SEZ (Special Economic Zone) (d) PSU dealing with healthcare amenities Q108. Which one of the following statements about Gangubai Hangal, who died in July 2009, is not correct? (a) She was a Hindustani classical singer of Kirana Gharana (b) She was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2002 (c) She was a campaigner to increase awareness for organ donation (d) She had the rare honour of being felicitated by nine Prime Ministers and five Presidents of India Q109. Consider the following statements regarding the ambitious National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change. 1. The mission is expected to save 23 million tonne oil equivalent of fuel and avoid the need to build additional capacity over 19000 MW.

MockTime.com 2. During the next four years the mission will help achieve green house gas emission reduction of 98.55 million tonnes per year. 3. The mission will also kickstart the country's first market based trading in energy efficiency saving in line with international carbon trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q110. There is a distinct change in public policies promoting human development in India in the postgloblised era. This change has been termed as (a) individual-centric approach to development (b) state-centric approach to development (c) right-based approach to development (d) performance-based approach to development Q111. Which one among the following was the objective of starting the Nirmal Gram Puraskar incentive scheme? (a) Encourage Panchayati Raj Institutions to take up sanitation promotion 100% defecation-free environment (b) Enable rural schools to provide safe and clean drinking water for children (c) Provide toilets to all rural households (d) Provide financial assistance to States to install water purification systems in rural schools Q112. In the era of globalisation, international migration is one of the biggest challenges of 21st century. To deal with this, which of the following steps have been taken by the Government of India? 1. Establishment of 24/7 helpline to provide information to jobseekers. 2. Undertaking steps to ratify the UN Convention on Transnational Organised Crime and its protocols. 3. Implementing e-Governance in emigration management to detect instances of misrepresentation, forgery etc. through real time validation of informationon publicprivate partnership basis. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3

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(d) 1 and 3 Q113. World's first gold and jewellery encrusted car- Gold Plus, was unveiled in the year 2011 as a tribute to 5000 years of Indian jewellery making. Who among the following was the maker of the car? (a) Tata Motors (b) Maruti Suzuki (c) Hundai (d) Volkswagen Q114. Which one among the following statements about globalisation is not correct? (a) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth (b) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity (c) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenization (d) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenization Q115. Which one among the following statements about Barack Obama is not correct? (a) In the year 2012, he was elected as the President of USA for the second time, defeating the republican candidate Mitt Romney (b) He is the first African-American President of USA (c) He is the first Democratic President since Franklin D Roosevelt to twice win the majority of the popular vote in USA presidential election (d) He is the only American President who won the Nobel Peace Prize Q116. Fourth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March, 2012, deliberated on the challenges faced by India for sustainable growth. Which one among the following is not a part of the formulated challenges? (a) Improvements required in public sector management (b) Inclusive growth (c) Improvements required in physical infrastructure (d) Development in the agricultural sector Q117. Which one among the following countries has won the ICC Women's World Cup, 2013 held in India? (a) India (b) West Indies

MockTime.com (c) Australia (d) Sri Lanka Q118. The Union Ministry of Environment and Forest recently approved in principle a proposal for Western Ghats development prepared K Kasturirangan-led panel. The panel has recommended a ban on development activities in around 60000 sq km ecologically sensitive area spread over (a) Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Kerala and Karnataka (b) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu (c) Odisha, Maharashtra, Goa, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka, Odisha. Gujarat Kerala. Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu Q119. Which of the following statements about India-Sri Lanka relations is/are correct? 1. India and Sri Lanka have a Free Trade Agreement. 2. India has emerged as the highest exporter to Sri Lanka as on May 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q120. Consider the following statements with regard to the First Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo (2015): 1. This is a follow-up to the 'Make in India' initiative. 2. The central theme of the meet is to attract large scale investments in the renewable energy sector in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. b 26. a 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. d 54. c 55. c 56. a 57. B 58. A 59. A 60. B 61. D 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. a 81. d 82. a 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. b

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91. b 92. c 93. a 94. c 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. d 99. b 100. b 101. a 102. d 103. c 104. b 105. a 106. d 107. b 108. b 109. a 110. d 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. d 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. b 119. a 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Rayon is made from naturally occuring cellulose. Rayon is also called artificial silk. 6. Addition of water to an aqueous solution of HCl decreases the pH because on dilution the number of H+ ions (from water) increases. Now since [H+] =10–pH\ As [H+] increases pH decreases. 7. The coil in a heater is made up of nichrome because its melting point and resistivity are high. 8. Radioactivity is not a periodic property. It is a nuclear property. Atomic size, valency and electronegativity are periodic properties because they show a trend on moving from one side to the other in the periodic table. 9. The method of protection of iron from corrosion by using a more reactive metal is known as sacrificial protection or cathodic protection. Zinc, magnesium and aluminium metals are more reactive than iron hence, they are used as a sacrificial anode while tin is less reactive than iron hence, it cannot be used as a sacrificial anode. 10. The pH of fresh ground water slightly decreases upon exposure to air because when it comes to air, it absorbs the carbon dioxide (CO2), and for carbonic acid (H2 CO3) which is a weak acid i.e. less pH. 11. Carbon atoms is diamond form a rigid, three dimensional structure with each carbon atom bonded to four other carbon atoms. 12. Silicosis in human is lung disease caused by inhalation of crystalline sillica-dust. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. Transformer is based on the principle of mutual induction. 18. Bands will disappear because band width µ wavelength D B d = l . 19. In automobiles, convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror because the image of the vehicle formed is small in size due to this the field of view is increased and the driver of automobile can see the traffic over large area.

MockTime.com 20. As white colour reflects all the components of white light and black colour absorbs all the components of white light. So, the best colours for a sun umbrella, white on top and black on inside. 21. Diffusion refers to the process by which molecules intermingle as a result of their kinetic energy of random motion. 22. Tungsten has the highest melting point and lowest vapour pressure of all metals. 23. Manganin is a trademarked name for an alloy of typically 86% copper, 12% manganese, and 2% nickel. Constantan is a copper-nickel alloy usually consisting of 55% copper and 45% nickel. Its main feature is its resistivity which is constant over a wide range of temperatures. Other alloys with similarly low temperature coefficients are manganin. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. The Human Right Commission consists of a chairman and other four members. The chairman should be a retired chief justice of India. 30. Article 26 of the Indian Constitution statesfreedom to manage religious affairs subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion; (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and 31. Correct chronological order of the presidents of Indian National Congress is - 1. Purushottam Das Tandon-1950 2. U. N. Dhebar- 1955 3. K. Kamaraj- 1964 4. Jagjivan Ram- 1970 32. Up to 2014, seven (out of twenty-nine) states have a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.Tamilnadu does not have Legislative Council. 33. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala(1973)is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution.In the case, the Supreme Court ruled that all provisions of the constitution, including Fundamental Rights can be

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amended. However, the Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the constitution like secularism, democracy, federalism, separation of powers. 34. According to Article 32, when an individual feels that he has been "unduly deprived" of his fundamental rights, he can move the Supreme Court and seek justice. Apart from the Supreme Court, the High Courts also have the power to protect fundamental rights. Like the apex court, they also can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights of the citizens. The both courts can issue five different writs Certiorari, Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto. 35. The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme was introduced by amending The Citizenship Act, 1955 in August 2005. The scheme was launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad in 2006. Overseas citizens of India will not enjoy the following rights even if resident in India: (i) the right to vote, (ii) the right to hold the offices of President, Vice-President, Judge of Supreme Court and High Court, Member of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assembly or Council (iii) appointment to Public Services (Government Service). 36. All statements are correct. 37. The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers. 38. · Election of Speaker shall be held on such date as the President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send notice of this dateto every member. · The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the SecretaryGeneral shall send notice of this dateto every member. · At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that he is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker, if elected. 39. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court(Article 131): Supreme court has power to decide disputes · between the Government of India and one or more States · between the Government of India and any State or States

MockTime.com on one side and one or more other States on the other · between two or more States. 40. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of selected members of Parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the auditing of the expenditure of the Government of India. Its chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. 41. The recommendation of the president is required for introduction of money bills or for moving amendments to acts relating to financial matters, except those making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. So, for option (c) president's recommendation is not required. 42. The power to decide the date of an election a state legislative assembly rests with the election commission of India. 43. 44. 45. Red Data Book is related with a complete list of all endangered species. 46. 47. Influenza is caused by virus and all other three diseases are bacterial, Influenza, generally called flu, is an infectious disease caused by RNA viruses of family Orthomyxoviridae. 48. 49. Ajinomoto is Chinese salt used for preparing noodles. It is used as a flavouring agent. 50. The major raw materials for soap production are fat and alkali. Other materials like water, softner, perfume, etc, may also be mixed if required. 51. Photochemical smog takes place in warm, dry and sunny climate.The word smog means ‗smoke‘ and ‗fog‘ means ‗smoky fog‘. Its main components are created from the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxide produced by automobiles and factories. 52. Endosulfan is an organochlorine pesticide and acaricide which is used. Endosulfan became a highly controversial agrichemical due to large number of victims in kerala. 53. Cancer is more common in older people because they have accumulation of more mutations. 54. Among the given options, bug possesses only three pairs of legs. All the insects in phylum Arthropoda have three pairs of legs in

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given option only bug belongs to classinsecta. 55. Characteristics of mammals: • They Are vertebrates (which means they have a backbone or spine). • They regulate their own body temperate which allows them to live in almost every climate on Earth. • Have hair on their bodies. • Produce milk to feed their babies. • Four chambered heart: two atria and two ventricles (bird and mammal) 56. Bat is mammal not a bird. 57. Only statement 2 is correct. Statements 1 & 3 are wrong. 58. Typically, higher inflation is caused by strong economic growth. If Aggregate demand in an economy expanded faster than aggregate supply, we would expect to see a higher inflation rate. If demand is rising faster than supply, then this suggests that economic growth is higher than the long run sustainable rate of growth. Note: A sustained rise in prices is known as inflation. A large rise in prices is often caused by economic growth. 59. The sharp decline in crude oil price helped the government to deregulate the price of diesel and thus reduce a huge burden of subsidy on the exchequer. India if not a producing giant, is certainly a refining hub where it refines and markets around 220 metric million tonnes of petroleum products. Out of this around 160 mmt is used for domestic consumption while the rest is used for exports. Therefore, the drop in price of oil will be a blessing for the Indian refiners and the oil marketing companies. 60. Unorganized workers (UW) in India have increased many folds post independence. Around 52% of UW's are engaged in agriculture & allied sector and they constitute more than 90% of the labour work force. Characteristics of unorganized sector are: • Excessive seasonality of employment • Poor working conditions • No fixed jobs • Work in very poor working environment • No job regulation • No security of Employment • Employed for a limited period 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68.

MockTime.com 69. It was a significant battle fought between the forces under the command of the British East India Company on the one side and the combined army of Mir Kasim, the Nawab of Bangal, Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam ll, the Mughal Emperor. Mir Jafar was a puppet of British East India Company. 70. Muhammad Iqbal was invited to the second and third round table conference. 71. These books deal with principles of grammar. 72. Harrapan civilization was rural based civilization. 73. . The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a set of principles to govern relations between states. The agreement was signed between India and China on 29 April 1954.The five principles of the panchsheel are: • Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty. • Mutual non-aggression. • Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs. • Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit. • Peaceful coexistence. 74. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of states which are not formally aligned with or against any major power bloc. The organization was founded in Belgrade in 1961. The principles of The Non-Aligned movement were: • Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty • Mutual non-aggression • Mutual noninterference in domestic affairs • Equality and mutual benefit • Peaceful co-existence 75. The American Revolutionary War (17751783) , was an armed conflict between the Kingdom of Great Britain and thirteen of its former North American colonies, which declared themselves the independent in 1776. 76. Jatakas are the stories that tell about the previous lives of the Buddha, in both human and animal form. 77. 78. The word Dhamma is the Prakrit version of the Sanskrit word Dharma. Ashoka's Dhamma is a philosophical entity that emphasizes on the high ideals in order to lead a successful life. He wanted everyone to live peacefully and co-exist in a harmonious environment. 79. Bal Gangadhar Tilak interpreted Gita as the scripture of Karmayoga. 80. Varahamihira was an Indian astronomer, mathematician, and astrologer who lived in Ujjain. He wrote Brihat Samhita which covers

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astrology, planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, architecture, growth of crops, manufacture of perfume, matrimony, domestic relations, gems, pearls, and rituals. 81. The word Swarajya was first coined by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. He is known for his quote "Swarajya is my birthright, and I shall have it!" 82. B G Tilak setup the Home Rule League at the Bombay Provincial conference held at Belgaum in April 1916. Narasimha Chintaman Kelkar (N. C. Kelkar) was associated with Shikshana Prasarak Mandali in Pune established in 1904 83. Sutanuti was one of the three villages which were merged to form the city of Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) in India. Job Charnock, an administrator with the British East India Company is traditionally credited with the honour of founding the city. Fort William was established to protect the East India Company's trade in the city of Calcutta, the principal town of the Bengal Presidency. In 1756, with the possibility of conflict with Frenchforces, the British began building up the fort's strengths and defences. 84. 85. Madhya Pradesh shares its border with 5 states which are Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan. 86. 1. Brazil- cruzado Real 2. China- Yuan 3. Mexico- Mexican Peso 4. Thailand- Thai Baht 87. In agriculture, leaching refers to the loss of watersoluble plant nutrients from the soil, due to rain and irrigation. The rate of leaching increases with the amount of rainfall, high temperatures, and the removal of protective vegetation. In areas of extensive leaching, many plant nutrients are lost, leaving quartz and hydroxides of iron, manganese, and aluminium. This remainder forms a distinctive type of soil, called laterite. 88. 89. Intergenerational equity is a concept that says that humans 'hold the natural and cultural environment of the Earth in common both with other members of the present generation and with other generations, past and future. It means that we inherit the Earth from previous generations and have an obligation to pass it on in reasonable condition to future generations. The goal of sustainable development is Intergenerational equity. 90.

MockTime.com 91. The Labrador Current is a cold current in the North Atlantic Ocean. 92. The angular speed of a whirlwind in a Tornado towards the centre remains constant. 93. Black soils become sticky when it is wet. It is rich in iron, lime, calcium, Magnesium, carbonates, and alumina and poor in Phosphorous, Nitrogen and Organic matter. The soil is black in colour because it is volcanic in origin. It is created from igneous rocks, and is also called 'regur soil'. 94. 111 Kms are represented by 1 degree latitude. 95. Primary consumers are animals that eat primary producers, they are also called herbivores (planteaters). An autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide or other chemicals. As autotrophs produce their own food, they are sometimes called 'producers' as plants, Algae etc. 96. Srinagar and Darjeeling will have midday sun exactly overhead only once a year. 97. Neptune's atmosphere is made up of hydrogen, helium and methane. The methane in Neptune's upper atmosphere absorbs the red light from the sun but reflects the blue light from the Sun back into space. This is why Neptune appears blue. 98. Gneiss is a high grade metamorphic rock, meaning that it has been subjected to higher temperatures and pressures than schist. It is formed by the metamorphosis of granite, or sedimentary rock. 99. The meridian passing through Greenwich, England,designated as the zero meridian (0°) that is directly under the sun experiences solar noon at a given time. 100. Laterite soil layer that is rich in iron oxide and derived from a wide variety of rocks weathering under strongly oxidizing and leachingconditions. 101. Vishakhapatanam is the deepest landlocked port in India. 102. Tectonic plates are composed of oceanic lithosphere and thicker continental lithosphere, each topped by its own kind of crust. Tectonic plates are able to move because the Earth's lithosphere has greater strength than the underlying asthenosphere. The outer shell of the earth, the lithosphere is broken up into tectonic plates. The seven major plates are the African plate, Antarctic plate, Eurasian plate, Indo-Australian plate, North American plate, Pacific plate and South

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American plate. Along convergent boundaries,subduction carries plates into the mantle. 103. The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed by the Indian Parliament on 12 May 2005 and received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005. It came into force on 12 October 2005. 104. 105. Before an EU treaty can enter into force, it must be ratified by all member states. Ratification takes different forms in each country, depending on its traditions, constitutional arrangements and political processes. The Treaty of Lisbon was signed by the EU member states on 13 December 2007. 106. The first recipients of the Bharat Ratna were politician C. Rajagopalachari, scientist C. V. Raman and philosopher Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who were honoured in 1954. 107. Piramal Life Science Ltd. is a Drug Research Company. 108. Gangubai Hangal was an Indian singer of the khyal genre of Hindustani classical music, belonged to the Kirana gharana. Gangubai Hangal received a number of awards but did not receive Bharat Ratna, which include: · Karnataka Sangeet Nritya Academy Award, 1962 · Padma Bhushan, 1971 · Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, 1973 · Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship, 1996 · Padma Vibhushan, 2002 109. NMEEE is an integrated approach for climate change mitigation through energy efficiency measures. It is an Indian government initiative proposed to address national problems of inefficient energy use. It is one of eight proposals created by India's 'National Action Plan for Climate Change' and is based on the Energy Conservation Act of 2001. 110. 111. Government of India (GOI) has been promoting sanitation coverage in a campaign mode to ensure better health and quality of life for people in rural India. To add vigour to its implementation, the government launched an award based Incentive Scheme for fully sanitized and open defecation free Gram Panchayats, Blocks, Districts and States called "Nirmal Gram Puraskar" (NGP) in October 2003 and gave away the first awards in 2005 as a component of its flagship scheme Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC). 112.

MockTime.com 113. Ratan Tata has unveiled world's first gold jewellery car to mark the occasion of 5000 glorious years of jewellery making tradition in India, from its Group company Titan Industries. 114. Critics of cultural homogenization theory point out that as different cultures mix, homogenization is less about the spread of a single culture as about the mi xture of different cultures, as people become aware of other cultures and adopt their elements. 115. Theodore Roosevelt, Woodrow Wilson, Barack Obama and Jimmy Carter were the Noble Peace Prize recipient American Presidents. 116. 117. Australia won the tournament for the sixth time, beating West Indies by 114 runs in the final. 118. It spreads over Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. 119. India and Sri Lanka have recently concluded the IndiaSri Lanka free trade accord.India has emerged as Sri Lanka's biggest importing source nation ahead of China and Singapore. India accounted for 18 per cent of Sri Lanka's total imports. 120. The first Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet & Expo, also called RE-Invest 2015, was held in New Delhi from 15 February 2015 to 17 February 2015. The meet was organised by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy as a follow-up to the Make in India initiative of the Prime Minister. The aim of the meet is to evolve innovative financial models for funding and to ensure the partnership of states and the Centre in harnessing renewable energy. Germany is the partner country for Re-Invest 2015.

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Biodiversity hotspots resulting from extremely dense human population leading to destruction of natural habitats, are found in India Indonesia (a) 1,2,3 (b) 2,3,4 (c) 1,2,4 (d) 1,2 only Q2. Chemical substances that may be able to treat macular degeneration causing blindness, are extracted from: (a) Penicillin fungus (b) (Amphibians (c) Scorpions (d) (Sharks Q3. Despite an impressive count of Asian elephant between 25000 to 27000, one of the biggest threats facing the elephant in India is: 1.Gradual loss of habitat 2.Confinement to fragmented forests 3.Fragmentation of habitat due to developmental activities 4.Absence of corridors to connect their habitats (a) 1,2 (b) 1,3 (c) 1,3,4 (d) 2,3,4 Q4. Consider the following statements: 1.Elephants have profound effect on ecosystems, both positive and negative effects on other species with their foraging activities 2.By pulling down trees to eat leaves and breaking branches, elephants reduce woody cover creating clearings in forests. 3.They convert forests to savannas and savannas to grasslands. 4.These changes benefit browsers at the expense of grazers. Which of the above statements are true? (a) 1,2 (b) 1,2,3 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2, 3, 4

Q5. Which one of the following metals is less reactive than hydrogen? (a) Barium (b) Copper (c) Lead (d) Magnesium Q6. Which one of the following is the secondary source of light in a fluorescent lamp? (a) Neon gas (b) Argon gas (c) Mercury vapour (d) Fluorescent coating Q7. Which among the following elements is abundant on the lunar surface and holds the potential to put an end to the energy crisis of the earth? (a) Helium-I (b) Helium-ll (c) Helium-Ill (d) Helium-IV Q8. The law enforcement agencies use a chemical test to approximate a person's blood alcohol level. The person undergoing the test blows into the mouthpiece of a bag containing sodium dichromate solution in acidic medium. A chemical reaction with ethanol changes the colour of the solution from (a) orange to green (b) orange to colourless (c) yellow to orange (d) colourless to orange Q9. Sodium thiosulphate (Na2 S2O3) solution is used in photography to (a) remove reduced silver (b) reduce silver bromide (AgBr) grain to silver (c) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble silver thiosulphate complex (d) convert the metallic silver to silver salt Q10. Which one among the following polymers is used for making bulletproof material? (a) Polyvinyl chloride (b) Polystyrene (c) Polyethylene (d) Polyamide Q11. Food cans are coated with tin but not with zinc because (a) zinc is costlier than tin

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(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin (c) zinc is more reactive than tin (d) tin is more reactive than zinc Q12. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Amnion contains fluid. 2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q13. Electricity is produced through dry cell from (a) chemical energy (b) thermal energy (c) mechanical energy (d) nuclear energy Q14. Soap forms a colloidal solution in water and removes the greasy matter by (a) absorption (b) emulsification (c) electrolysis (d) electrophoresis Q15. Different chromatographic techniques are used to separate (1)all sorts of mixtures (2)only volatile components (3)only solid components (4)only isomers The correct term(s) is/are (a) 1 only (b) 1,4 only (c) 2,3 only (d) 3,4 only Q16. Second law of thermodynamics is about (a) temperature (b) pressure (c) entropy (d) enthalpy Q17. Television signal cannot be received generally beyond a particular distance due to (a) curvature of the Earth (b) weakness of antenna (c) weakness of signal (d) absorption of signal in air Q18. Raw mangoes shrivel when pickled in brine. The phenomenon is associated with

MockTime.com (a) osmosis (b) reverse osmosis (c) increase of surface tension of fluid (d) decrease of surface tension of fluid Q19. The cat can survive fall from a height much more than human or any other animal. It is because the cat (a) can immediately adjust itself to land on all four paws and bend the legs to absorb the impact of falling (b) has elastic bones (c) has thick and elastic skin (d) also gets injury equally with other animals, but has tremendous endurance, resistance and speedy recovery

Q20. When ice melts, its (a) volume decreases (b) volume increases (c) volume and mass both decrease (d) volume decreases while mass increases Q21. Which one among the following is not a correct statement? (a) Cathode rays are negatively charged particles (b) Cathode rays are produced from all the gases (c) Electrons are basic constituents of all the atoms (d) Hydrogen ions do not contain any proton Q22. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to (a) increase the intensity of light emitted (b) increase the life of the filament (c) make the emitted light coloured (d) make the production of bulb economical Q23. Which one among the following is used in making lead pencils? (a) Charcoal (b) Graphite (c) Coke (d) Carbon black Q24. (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Q25. The internal circuits of a computer are capable of representing all information using two elementary symbols: These symbols are called (a) Bytes (b) Bits (c) MIPS (d) None of the above Q26. A stone dropped from top of a building hits the ground after 5 . What Is the height of the building? (a) 25 m (b) 50 m (c) 125 m (d) 250 m Q27. The mid-air swing of a spinning football can be explained on the basis of (a) Archimedes principle (b) Bemoulli‘s principle (c) Pascal‘s principle (d) None of the above Q28. When is a nuclear reactor said to have become ‗critical‘? (a) When the fission reaction goes out of control. (b) Then the population of neutrons becomes steady, i.e., as many neutrons are produced as lost. (c) When the fission reaction stops. (d) None of the above

MockTime.com (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q31. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article? (a) Jharkhand (b) Punjab (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha Q32. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament (a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Discussion on Budget (b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Budget, Vote on Accounts (c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill (d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account

Q29. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection? (a) 8th Schedule (b) 7th Schedule (c) Schedule (d) 10th Schedule

Q33. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct? 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Q30. Consider the following statements on Parlia-mentary Committees 1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings. 2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above islare correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

Q34. In India the right to 'freedom of speech and expression' is restricted on the grounds of 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. 2. contempt of court. 3. friendly relation with foreign states. 4. protection of minorities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

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Q35. Statement I ' The Fundamental Rights protect the rights and liberties of the people against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government. Statement II The Fundamental Rights guarantee the rights of the citizens. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q36. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels (b) implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralised state (c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government (d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society Q37. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats (a) in accordance with their population (b) equally (c) on the basis of population and economic position (d) on the basis of present economic status Q38. Which one among the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India? (a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom (c) Right against Exploitation (d) Right to Information Q39. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and VicePresidential Elections are settled by (a) Election Commission of India (b) Joint Committee of Parliament (c) Supreme Court of India (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha Q40. The citizenship means 1. full civil and political rights of the citizens. 2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state. 3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

MockTime.com (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q41. Consider the following statements about local government in India: 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides for the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to make them function as units of self-government. 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part IX and IX A in the Constitution. 3. The provisions in Farts IX and IX A of Indian Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous. 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to all states irrespective of size of population. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q42. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a Court Martial. (b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law. (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be compelled to do hard work as this would amount to violation of Article 23 of the Constitution of India. (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India in relation to service matters of persons in the armed forces. Q43. Under one of the following judgment the Supreme Court directed the Government to constitute a permanent body in favor of the backward classes (a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (c) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (d) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India Q44. Under which article are the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to Parliament?

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(a) Art 75 (3) (b) Art 74 (3) (c) Art 73 (2) (d) Art 72 (2) Q45. Which of the following is not a bird? (a) Bat (b) Emu (c) Kiwi (d) Ostrich Q46. Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature? (a) Blood red (b) Dark cherry (c) Salmon (d) White Q47. Between which one of the following sets of blood groups, is the blood transfusion possible? (a) A and O (b) B and A (c) A and AB (d) AB and O Q48. The branches of this tree root themselves like new trees over a large area. The roots then give rise to more trunks and branches. Because of this characteristic and its longevity, this tree is considered immortal and is an integral part of the myths and legends of India. Which tree is this? (a) Banyan (b) Neem (c) Tamarind(Imli) (d) Peepal Q49. Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants? (a) Nerium (b) Neem (c) Bougainvillea (d) Calotropis Q50. Mosquito can be a vector for the following disease except (a) yellow fever (b) dengue fever (c) filariasis (d) kala-azar Q51. Which of the following diseases are transmitted from one person to another? 1.AIDS 2. Cirrhosis 3.Hepatitis B

MockTime.com 4.Syphilis Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 2,3 and4 (b) 1,3 and4 (c) 1 and2 (d) All of these Q52. The anti-malarial drug quinine is made from a plant. The plant is (a) neem (b) eucalyptus (c) cinnamon (d) cinchona Q53. Human blood is a viscous fluid. This viscosity is due to (a) proteins in blood (b) platelets in plasma (c) sodium in serum (d) RBC and WBC in blood Q54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding fats? 1.Fats are needed for the formation of cell membrane. 2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from food. 3.Fats are required to repair damaged tissue. 4.Body cannot release energy in fats as quickly as the energy in carbohydrates. Select the correct answer using the codesgiven below (a) 1 and4 (b) Only1 (c) 2 and4 (d) 3 and4 Q55. In human digestive system, the process of digestion starts in (a) Oesophagus (b) Buccal cavity (c) Duodenum (d) Stomach Q56. Match the following lists. List I (Scientist) - List II (Work) A. F G Banting -1.Vaccination for small box B. J Lister -2. Germ theory C. Louis Pasteur -3.Use of carbolic acid as an antiseptic D. E Jenner -4.Discovery of insulin Codes A B C D (a) 4321 (b) 4213 (c) 3421

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(d) 1432 Q57. Brent index is associated with (a) crude oil prices (b) copper future prices (c) gold future prices (d) shipping rate index Q58. Which of the fallowing are responsible for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India? 1. Low per capita income. 2. Rapid rate of increase of population. 3. Practice of dividing land equally among the heirs. 4. Use of traditional techniques of ploughing. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 Q59. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for recent rapid slow down of Indian economy despite recovering from the global financial crisis. 1. The boost to demand given by monetary and fiscal stimulus following the crisis was large. 2. Starting in 2011-12, corporate and infrastructure investment started slowing both as a result of investment bottlenecks as well as the tighter monetary policy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q60. In India, contribution of food inflation to overall inflation is around 1 rd 3 to 2 th [2014-I] 5. Within food inflation, contribution of food articles is higher because price rise in food articles is (a) higher and their weight is also higher compared to food products (b) higher but their weight is lower compared to food products (c) lower but their weight is higher compared to food products (d) lower and their weight is also lower compared to food products d

MockTime.com Q61. National product at factor cost is equal to (a) Domestic product + Net factor income from abroad (b) National product at market prices indirect taxes + subsidies (c) Gross domestic-product - depreciation (d) National product at market prices + Indirect taxes + subsidies Q62. Consider the following statements: 1.The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) is responsible for calculating the consumer price indices for urban non-manual employees. 2.National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) collects data for estimating national income. 3.NSSO collects rural retail price on monthly basis for calculating Consumer Price Index. 4.CSO conducts periodic economic census to collect data on unorganised enterprises. Which of the following statements is are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Q63. Which of the following is not an objective of the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana for Rural Electricity Infrastructure and Household Electrification? (a) Creation of Rural Electricity Distribution Backbone (b) Creation of Village Electricity Infrastructure (c) Provision of free electricity to village c lubs and libraries (d) Electrification of all un-electrified BPL households Q64. The cause for a steep decline in population in India in 1921 census was: (a) first world war (b) influenza (c) famine (d) partition of Bengal Q65. At present there are 12 major ports in the country. The latest to be notified as a major port is: (a) Kandla (b) Kochi (c) Paradeep (d) Ennore

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Q66. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India has shown a distinct preference for (a) software industry (b) the core and infrastructure sectors (c) agribusiness (d) Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) Q67. Which of the following is not a function of the EXIM Bank of India? (a) Financing of export and import of goods and services (b) inspection of exported goods for quality assurance. (c) Financing of joint ventures in foreign countries. (d) loans to Indian parties for contributing to share capital of joint ventures abroad. Q68. Which of the following geographical indicators has not been recognised for patent protection? (a) Mysore silk (b) Naga Mircha (c) Darjeeling Basmati (d) Kani shawl Q69. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the freedom movements of India? (a) Quit India Movement, Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement (b) Non-cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit India Movement (c) Quit India Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, Non, Cooperation Movement (d) Non-Cooperation Movement–Quit India Movement– Civil Disobedience Movement

Q70. Match the following List I (Associated in Formation of) List II (Person) A. GK Gokhaie- 1. Servants of Indian Society B. MM Malaviya - 2. Banaras Hindu University C. C Rajagopalachari - 3. Free India Society D. VD Savarkar - 4. Swatantra Party Codes: A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1

MockTime.com (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 2 4 1 Q71. Match the following List I(Person) - List II (Satyagraha) A. Raj Kumar Shukla- 1. Kheda Satyagraha B. Ambalal Sarabhai - 2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike C. Indulal Yagnik - 3. Bardoli Satyagraha D. Vallabhbhai Patel - 4. Champaran Satyagraha Codes: ABCD ABCD (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 Q72. After the death of Raja Rammohan Roy, the Brahmo Samaj split into two sections; the Brahmo Samaj of India and the Adi Brahmo Samaj. Who were the leaders of the two sections, respectively? (a) Keshab Chandra Sen and Debendranath Tagore (b) Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore (c) Keshab Chandra Sen and Radhakanta Deb (d) Debendranath Tagore and Radhakanta Deb Q73. The Russian revolutionaries derived their ideology from the doctrines of (a) Lenin and Stalin (b) Marx and Lenin (c) Marx and Engels (d) Lenin and Engels Q74. To which among the following the residuary powers were conferred by the federation established by the act of 1935? (a) Federal legislature (b) Provincial legislatures (c) Governor-General (d) Provincial Governors Q75. Which of the following statements about Fourth AngloMysore War are correct? 1. The Madras Council suggested a policy of rigorous and intense attack on Mysore. 2. Lord Wellesley tried to revive the triple alliance. 3. Tipu sent emissaries to Arabia, Versailles, Mauritius and Kabul enlisting support against the English.

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4. The war was of a very short duration though decisive. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 Q76. The Jainas believe the Jainism is the outcome of the teachings of 24 tirthankaras. In the light of this statement, which one among the following is correct of Vardhamana Mahavira? (a) He was the first tirthankara and the founder of Jainism (b) He was the 23rd tirthankara, the first 22 tirthankaras being considered legendary (c) He was the last and 24th tirthankara, who was not considered as the founder of the new faith but as a reformer of the existing religious sect (d) He was not one of the 24 tirthankaras Q77. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history (starting with the earliest) 1. The Doctrine of Lapse 2. The Subsidiary Alliance 3. The Treaty of Lahore 4. T Pitt‘s India Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 4, 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 Q78. What was the Kutagarashala literally, a hut with a pointed roof? (a) A place where animals were kept (b) A place where intellectual debates among Buddhist mendicants took place (c) A place where weapons were stored (d) A place to sleep Q79. Who among the following was not associated with the foundation of the All India Trade Union Congress? (a) NM Joshi (b) Lajpat Rai (c) VV Giri (d) Joseph Baptista Q80. Which one among the following thinkers argued that Maratha rule in general and

MockTime.com Shivaji in particular represented early nationalist cons-ciousness in India? (a) Pandita Ramabai (b) MG Ranade (c) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Q81. Consider the following statements about Satyagraha 1. It was first experimented by Gandhiji in South Africa. 2. It was first experimented in India at Champaran Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q82. Consider the following statements about the First Session of the Indian National Congress 1. It was held in Bombay in 1885. 2. Surendranath Banerji could not attend the session due to the simultaneous session of the Indian National Conference. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q83. Under the forceful thrust of British rule, a rapid transformation of the Indian economy took place. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct? 1. Indian economy was transformed into a colonial economy in the 19th century whose structure was determined by Britain's fast developing industrial economy. 2. The influx of cheap Indian products into England gave a great blow to English textile industries. 3. The 19th century saw the collapse of the traditional Indian village economy and fresh economic alignment along commercial li nes. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) l and 2 Q84. Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century South India is/are correct?

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1. Musical developments were spearheaded by the Arcot court. 2. Tanjavur replaced Madras as the cultural capital of classical music in the second half of the nineteenth century. 3. Three great composers, Tyagaraja, Diksitar and Syama Sastri experimented with the kriti form to set the foundations for modern Carnatic music. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q85. In which one of the following places is the Forest Survey of India (FSI), a national organisation engaged in forest cover mapping, forest inventory and training in the field of remote sensing and GIS, located? (a) Dehradun (b) Itanagar (c) Ahmedabad (d) Aizawl Q86. In which one of the following is higher percentage of carbon found? (a) Lignite coal (b) Peat coal (c) Bituminous coal (d) Anthracite coal Q87. Match the following List l (Place) List II (Famous for) A. Balaghat - Oil field B. Katni - Iron ore C. Singrauli - Manganese D. Kalol - Bauxite Coal Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 5 1 (c) 3 5 4 1 (d) 1 2 5 3 Q88. What is the correct sequence of the location of the following sea ports of India from South to North? (a) Cochin, Thiruvananthapuram, Calicut, Mangalore (b) Calicut, Thiruvananthapuram, Cochin, Mangalore (c) Thiruvananthapuram, Cochin, Calicut, Mangalore (d) Thiruvananthapuramr Calicut, Mangalore, Cochin

MockTime.com Q89. An Earthquake epicentre is the (a) point where the seismograph is located (b) point within the Earth where the movement along the fault occurs (c) approximate centre of a group of related Earthquakes (d) point on the surface directly above where the rupture along the fault zone occur Q90. Which among the following pairs are correct? 1. Cirque and Col Glacial topography 2. Barkhans and Yardans Desert topography 3. Eddies and Potholes Fluvial topography Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q91. Which of the following statements with regard to the expansion of the desert in Rajasthan is/are corrrect? 1. The predominant wing direction in Rajasthan is North-East to South-West, so the tendency for desertification has been more in that direction. 2. The Thar desert is dominantly a monsoon driven sand desert where wind erosion is a major problem during the summer months. While the Aravalli range is a major barrrier in the spread of the desert, ram part mining creating cuts in the range is leading to the spread of the desert. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q92. Currently half of the world's population live in just 6 countries. Identify them from the following (a) India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, Indonesia (b) India, China, Bangladesh, South Africa, Pakistan, Indonesia (c) China, India. United States, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan (d) China, India, Bangladesh, United States, Pakistan, Indonesia Q93. Match the following List I (Local wind) List II (Area of Prevalence)

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A. Chinook - 1 North African desert B. Foehn -2 Rocky mountain slopes of the USA C. Sirocco - 3 Northern slopes of Alps D. Mistral - 4 Sourthern slopes of Alps Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2

Q99. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) Solar noon occurs simultaneously at locations with the same longitude (b) One meridian, which is directly under the Sun, experiences solar noon at a given time (c) Places having same longitude experience solar noon at different times (d) Solar noon occurs at different times at locations with the same latitude

Q94. Name the Continents that form a mirror image of each other (a) North America and South America (b) Asia and Africa (c) Africa and South America (d) Europe and Asia DIRECTION (Q. Nos. 226-227): The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the code given below

Q100. Which one among the following is responsible for formation of Ozone Holes' in the stratosphere? (a) Benzopyrene (b) Hydrocarbons (c) Chloro Fluoro Carbons (d) UV radiation

Q95. Which one among the following is a source of methane emission into the atmosphere? (a) Automobile exhaust fume (b) Industrial chimney (c) Mining (d) Wetland Q96. In absorption of insolation, the most significant part is played by (a) carbon dioxide (b) ozone (c) oxygen (d) haze Q97. Statement I Comets revolve around the Sun only in long elliptical orbits. Statement II A comet develops a tail when it gets close to the Sun (a) (b) (c) (d) Q98. If the time of a place located on 165° E meridian is 11:00 pm on Sunday, what would be the time at the place located on 165° W meridian? (a) 11:00 pm on Sunday (b) 12:00 noon on Sunday (c) 1:00 am on Sunday (d) 11:00 pm on Saturday

Q101. Which of the following is/are the stage(s) of demographic transition? 1. High death rate and birthrate, low growth rate. 2. Rapid decline in birthrate, very low 3. Rapid decline in birthrate continued decline in death rate. 4. Low death rate and birthrate, low growth rate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Q102. Consider the diagram given below: 1012 mb A B 1020 mb 998 mb C The above diagram represents the pressure conditions of three different places, viz., A, B and C. Which of the following is the correct direction of movement of winds? (a) Blow from B towards A and C (b) Blow from C towards A and B (c) Blow from B to A and from A to C (d) Blow from B to C and C to B Q103. Who among the following was the fourth President of independent India? (a) Zakir Hussain (b) Zail Singh (c) VV Giri (d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Q104. Which one of the following Committees/ Commissions was formed to study and suggest pricing pattern for oil and natural gas sectors in India?

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(a) BK Chaturvedi Committee (b) Sachar Committee (c) BN Srikrishna Commission (d) M Veerapa Moily Commission Q105. Recently a large number of children/infants have fallen sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like South Africa, Japan and Singapore etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products? (a) China (b) Bangladesh (c) Pakistan (d) Iran Q106. Which one of the following statement with respect to India Air Force is not correct? (a) Chetak is a single engine turboshaft helicopter of Russian origin (b) SU-30 is a twin engine fighter of Russian origin (c) Mirage-2000 is a multi-role fighter of French origin (d) MiG-29 is a twin engine fighter aircraft of Russian origin Q107. Match the following Listl List II (Name of warhead) (Type) A. Tejas - 1. Air-to-air missile B. Arjun - 2. Ship-based missile C. Dhanush - 3. Main battle tank D. Astra - 4. Light combat aircraft Codes ABC D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 1 C-162 Miscellaneous Q108. Prominent Indian social activist Deep Joshi was awarded the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award for the year 2009 for his (a) philanthropic work in the form of the Lok Biradari Prakalp amongst the Madia Gonds in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra and the neighbouring States of Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. (b) extensive work in applying wireless technologies to develop remote areas of the Himalayas. (c) vision and leadership in bringing professionalism to the NGO movement in India.

MockTime.com (d) dedicated service for cancer patients and intensive research in the prevention and cure of the disease. Q109. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the code given below the cartoon character (s) described therein He has/they have already completed the 75th year of his/ their appearance. It is/they are the only cartoon character (s) to appear as mascot for the sports team of a major American University, University of Oregon. His/their dominant personality trait is his/their short temper and in contrast, his/their positive looks on life. (a) Godzilla (b) Mickey Mouse (c) Donald Duck (d) Tom and Jerry Q110. Which one of the following is nuclearcapable submarinelaunched ballistic missile? (a) Sagarika (b) Shourya (c) Prithvi (d) Nag Q111. Which one among the following statements regarding Rabindranath Tagore's concern for the natural world and environment is not correct? (a) Caring for nature on aesthetic grounds, as Tagore did, has now become one of the major environmental concerns in the developed countries of the world (b) Tagore's short stories and novels exhibit his concern for nature (c) Tagore's vision of education emphasised the need to generate environmental awareness among the students (d) Tagore's concern about the environment was activated by pragmatic and utilitarian considerations Q112. Which of the following statements regarding Global-INK (Indian Network of Knowledge) is not correct? (a) It is an ICT (Information and Communication Technology) enabled platform for next generation knowledge management (b) The network will serve as a strategic 'virtual think tank' (c) The outcome target will be the germination of ideas on development and articulating and

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mapping out solutions through innovation and technological interventions (d) The network is being developed by Reliance communication Q113. An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently with formation of a new country named South Sudan. Economy of South Sudan will depend on its (a) agricultural product (b) minerals (c) forest product (d) fishery product Q114. Consider the following statements about Rahul Bhattacharya, who won the prestigious Royal Society of Literature Ondaatje Prize, 2012 1. He was awarded the Ondaatje Prize for this book, The Sly Company of People Who Care. 2. He is a cricket journalist. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q115. European Union's annual Sakharov Prize for freedom of thought for 2012 has been won by (a) Guillermo Farinas from Cuba (b) Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi from Iran (c) Ali Farzat from Syria and Mohammed Bouazizi from Tunisia (d) Asmaa Mahfouz and Ahmed-al-Senussi from Egypt and Libya respectively Q116. Which one among the following statements about Grigori Perelman is not correct? (a) He is a genius from Russia (b) He rejected the offer of professorship in Princeton and Stanford University (c) He works in the area of cosmology Miscellaneous C-171 (d) He has refused to accept the 'Fields Medal' and the 'Millennium Prize' recently Q117. Which Indian musician has recently been awarded with lifetime achievement Grammy Award? (a) AR Rahman (b) Pt Ravi Shankar (c) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan

MockTime.com (d) Lata Mangeshkar Q118. Carefully read the following passage and identify the person referred to in that Her best known works are The Golden Notebook, Memoirs of a Survivor and The Summer Before the Dark. She was the oldest recipient of the Nobel Prize in Literature. (a) Alice Munro (b) Doris Lessing (c) Herta Muller (d) Elfriede Jelinek Q119. Consider the following statements: 1. Government of India has recently upgraded the National Industrial Classification from NIC-1987 to NIC-2008. 2. NIC is an essential statistical standard for developing and maintaining comparable database according to economic activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both land 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q120. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Living Planet Report - 2014 (Species and Spaces, People and Places) released by World Wildlife Fund (WWF)? 1. The Living Planet Index (LPI), which measures more than 10,000 representative populations of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish, has declined by 52% since 1970. 2. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. d 54. a 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. B 59. C 60. c 61. A 62. a 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. a 76. c 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. c 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. a 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. c 95. d 96. a 97. b 98. d

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99. c 100. c 101. d 102. c 103. c 104. a 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. c 110. a 111. d 112. d 113. a 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. b 118. b 119. c 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. C H added for comparison Reactivity Series of Metals Most reactive Least reactive In the reactivity series of metals, copper is placed below the hydrogen. Hence, it is less reactive than hydrogen. On the other hand barium, lead and magnesium are placed above the hydrogen hence, these are more reactive than hydrogen. 6. Fluorescent coating on the glass is the secondary source of light in a fluorescent lamp. 7. Helium-III is abundant on the lunar surface and holds the potential to put an end to the energy crisis of the Earth. 8. On reaction with ethanol the colour of the solution changes from, orange to green. 9. Sodium thiosulphate (Na2 S2O3) solution is used as fixer in photography, it removes undercomposed AgBr as a soluble silver thiosulphate complex.2233232 Sodiumargento thiosulphate AgBr2Na S O Na [Ag(S O)] NaBr +® + 10. In making of bullet proof material. Polyethylene polymers is used because it is cheap, flexible, durable and chemically resistant. 11. Food cans are coated with tin instead of zinc because zinc is more reactive than tin. Tin is only reactive to powerful acids such as tri-sodium phosphate, while zinc is reactive towards acids. 12. Amnion is a membrane, filled with fluid, closely covers the embryo. The sex of the embryo may be determined by ultrasound as early as11 weeks gestation. 13. Electricity is produced through dry cell from chemical energy. The cells from which electric energy is derived by irreversible chemical action are called primary cells. The primary cell is capable of providing an EMF when its constituent's two electrodes and a suitable electrolyte are assembled together. The three main primary cells are the Daniel cell, the Leclanche cell, and the dry cell. None of these cells can be recharged electrically. 14. 15. 16.

MockTime.com 17. Curvature of the earth does not allow the television signals to be received beyond a particular distance. 18. Raw mangoes shrivel when pickled in brine due to osmosis i.e. flow of water from higher concentration to lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. 19. As the cat falls from a height, it bends the legs to absorb the impact of falling and immediately adjust itself. 20. When ice melts its density increases i.e. its volume decreases. Mass is a invariant quantity. 21. Hydrogen ion has one proton i.e., 1H1. Atomic number = no. of proton =1 for atom like hydrogen. 22. The inert gas within the bulb prevents the filament from evaporating.Thus it increases the life of the filament. 23. Graphite is used in making lead pencils due to its ability to leave marks on paper and other objects. Pencil lead is most commonly a mix of powdered graphite and clay. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party. 30. Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on Public Undertakings consist of 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 members of the Rajya Sabha.Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. 31. According to Article 164(1) in the State of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes or any other work. Punjab is not covered by the Article. 32. The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account. 33. The fundamental duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. The Fundamental Duties of

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citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The fundamental duties are contained in Art. 51APart IV (a). The fundamental duties however are nonjustifiable in character. This means that no citizen can be punished by a court for violation of a fundamental duty. 34. Freedom of speech and expression is restricted on the ground of: · security of the State, · friendly relations with foreign States, · public order, · decency and morality, · contempt of court, · defamation, · incitement to an offence, · Sovereignty and integrity of India. 35. Fundamental Rights guarantee civil liberties such that all Indians can lead their lives in peace and harmony as citizens of India. The seven fundamental rights recognised by the Indian constitution Aliens (persons who are not citizens) are also considered in matters like equality before law. They are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain restrictions. It protects the rights and liberties of the people against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government. 36. The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is to lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels. The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian constitution. The Directive Principles may be said to contain the philosophy of the constitution. The Directive principles are broad directives given to the state in accordance with which the legislative and executive powers of the state are to be exercised. 37. In the Rajya Sabha the states have been given seats on the basis of population and economic position. 38. RTI act was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully into force on 12 October 2005. It has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article 19 (a) of the Constitution. Article 19 (a) under which every citizen has freedom of speech and expression and have the right to know how the government works, what role does it play, what are its functions and so on. Polity C-129 39. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and

MockTime.com decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final (Article 71 (a)). 40. All statements are true. Citizenship is covered in Part II of the Indian constitution (articles 5-11). 41. 73 rd constitution amendment is applicable to all states except Jammu & Kashmir. 42. Option (a) is not correct. Under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution the Indian President is empowered to grant pardon, he can reprieve, respite or remit the punishment in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial. 43. 44. 45. Bat is mammal not a bird. 46. Colour temperature is a measurement relating the colour of the light radiated by an object to its temperature. No matter whatever the temperature is the hottest would only radiate to blue-white light radiation. 47. O is the universal donor, but can obtain blood only from O so option 48. Banyan (Ficus benghalensis) tree has aerial roots. From the tip of these roots new plant can evolve. In Hinduism, the leaf of the Banyan tree is said to be the place for Lord Krishna. 49. Bougainvillea is popularly planted along the road for absorption of vehicular pollutants. 50. Kala-azar is spread by sandfly of genus phlebotomus argentipse of yellow fever and dengue fever is spread by Ades mosquito whereas filariasis is spread by Anopheles mosquito. 51. Cirrhosis is a only disorder which is caused due to excessive drink of alcohol or hepatitis. All the other three disorders are infectious diseases. They can be transmitted from one peron to another. 52. The cinchona plant has antimalarial alkaloids cinchonidine and quinine. Quinine is obtained from the bark of this plant. 53. Blood is a viscous fluid in human being. This viscosity is due to presence of RBC and WBC in blood. A higher percentage of these cells in blood causes the higher viscosity. 54. Fats are essential for the formation of all membranes Fats are present in the form of phospholipid. Phospholipid are the same as triglycerides except that one of the three fatty acid units is replaced by a molecule having phosphorus. Body can not release energy in fats as quickly as the energy in carbohydrates

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because fat first will oxidise into carbohydrate to evolve energy. 55. In human digestive system the process of digestion starts in buccal cavity. The buccal cavity is more commonly known as the mouth, and it is the beginning of the digestive system for humans and animals a like. It starts with the lips and ends with the throat, covering the oral cavity, the tongue, and the jaw in between. 56. 57. Brent Crude is a major trading classification of sweet light crude oil that serves as a major benchmark price for purchases of oil worldwide. Brent Crude is extracted from the North Sea and comprises Brent Blend, Forties Blend, Oseberg and Ekofisk crudes .The Brent Crude oil marker is also known as Brent Blend, London Brent and Brent petroleum. The index represents the average price of trading in the 25 day Brent Blend, Forties, Oseberg, Ekofisk (BFOE) market in the relevant delivery month as reported and confirmed by the industry media. 58. Rapid rate of increase of population and practice of dividing land equally among the heirs are responsible for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India. 59. Factors responsible for this are given below: 1. The boost to demand given by monetary and fiscal stimulus following the crisis was large. Final consumption grew at an average of over 8% annually between 2009-10 and 2011-12. The result was strong inflation and a powerful monetary response that also slowed consumption demand. 2. Beginning in 2011-12 corporate and infrastructure investment started slowing both as a result of investment bottlenecks as well as the tighter monetary policy. 60. 61. National product at factor cost is equal to net domestic product at factor cost+ Net factor Income from Abroad. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. The Non-Cooperation Movement, 1920-22 Civil Disobedience Movement in India, 193034) The Quit India Movement, 1942

MockTime.com 70. • G.K Gokhale established The Servants of India Society in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12, 1905. • Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya founded Banaras Hindu University (BHU) at Varanasi in 1916. • The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari, was Indian conservative political party that existed from 1959 to 1974. • Vinayak Damodar Savarkar founded Free India Society(student society) . 71. Gandhi ji launched Champaran Satyagrah on the repeated request of a local leader, Raj kumar Shukla, Ambalal Sarabhai was an industrialist of Ahmedabad. He gave both personal and financial support to the freedom struggle in Ahmedabad. Indulal Kanaiyalal Yagnik was an independence activist and a leader of the All India Kisan Sabha. He participated in the Kheda Satyagraha(In 1918,) led by Gandhiji. Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel was a barrister and leader of Indian Independence. He started Bardoli Satyagrah in Gujarat against the raised tax of 30% . 72. The conflict between Sen and Debendranath Tagore was broadened in 1865, when Tagore allowed the Brahmos conducting services to wear their sacred threads. Sen objected this decision and withdrew from the Brahmo Samaj along with his followers. Keshab Chandra Sen and his disciples established the Brahmo Samaj of India on 15th November, 1866 and Debendranath Tagore grouped themselves into the Adi (original) Brahmo Samaj. 73. The German philosopher Karl Marx became one of the most influential thinkers of the 20th century. Marx believed that all historical change was caused by a series of class struggles between the bourgeoisie 'haves' and the proletariat 'have-nots'. The work of Karl Marx caught the attention of members of the intelligentsia. The first Russian to translate Marx's works was George Plekhanov. In 1883 he founded the first Marxist organisation in Russia. He was called the father of Russian Marxism.Marks and Engels wrote several books together. 74. Governor General was the sole authority to decide and confer such powers upon central and state legislature. 75. The Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (17981799) was a war in South India between the Kingdom of Mysore and the British East India Company under the Earl of Mornington. In the battle, Tipu Sultan was shot and killed.

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76. Mahavira was a teacher of the religion of Jainism. He lived in India. His followers believed that he was the 24th in a line of great teachers. These teachers were called tirthankaras. 77. 78. Kutagarasala Vihara is the monastery where Buddha most frequently stayed while visiting Vaishali. It is located 3 kilometres from the relic Stupa. 79. V.V GIRI was the fourth president of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974.He became president of the All India Trade Union Congress twice but was not the founding member of AITUC. 80. Gopal Krishana Gokhale was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and founder of the Servants of India Society.According to him Maratha rule in general and Shivaji in particular represented the early nationalist spirit and consciousness in India. 81. The term Satyagraha was coined by Gandhi Ji.He used it in South Africa for Indian rights. And in India it was first experimented in Champaran District of Bihar. 82. The first session of INC was held in Bombay. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was the first President of the INC. It was held from 28-31 December 1885, and was attended by 72 delegates. 83. 84. Nawab Mohammed Abdul Ail(Prince of Arcot) is a patron of music,art and literature. The musical trinity consists of Dikshitar, Tyagaraja and Syama Sastri although, unlike the Telugu compositions of the others, his compositions are predominantly in Sanskrit. He also had composed some of his Kritis in Manipravalam. 85. Forest Survey of India (FSI) is an organisation under the Ministry of Environment & Forests. Government of India conducts survey and assessment of forest resources in the country. The organization came into being in June, 1981.The headquarters of FSI are at Dehradun. 86. Anthracite has higher percentage of Carbon. It has a carbon content of over 87% on a dry ash-free basis. 87. About 80% of the manganese production in India comes from Balaghat District of Madhya Pradesh. Katni (Madhya Pradesh) is famous for Bauxite mines.Singrauli Coalfield is spread across the districts of Singrauli(Madhya Pradesh). Most of the coal

MockTime.com is dispatched to pithead power plants as Singrauli Super Thermal Power Station, Rihand Thermal Power Station and Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station etc. Kalol in Gujaratis famous for its oil fields. 88. The correct sequence is ThiruvananthapuramCochin-CalicutMangalore 89. The epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface where an earthquake explosion originates. 90. 1. Cirque and coal - Glacial Topography 2. Barkhans and Yardans- Desert topography 3. Eddies and Potholes- Fluvial topography 91. Both statements are true. 92. According to data from the United Nations half of those 7.2 billion people live in only six countries: the United States, Brazil, Pakistan, India, China, and Indonesia. The world population has reached 7.2 billion. 93. 1. Chinook wind- Rocky Mountains 2. Foehn- Northern slopes of the Alps 3. Sirocco- North African desert 4. Mistral Southern slopes of Alps 94. Africa and South America form a mirror image of each other. 95. The most significant natural sources of atmospheric methane are wetlands. Wetlands are characterized by waterlogged soils and distinctive communities of plant and animal species that have evolved and adapted to the constant presence of water. Due to this high level of water saturation as well as warm weather, wetlands are one of the most significant natural sources of atmospheric methane. 96. In absorption of isolation the most significant part is played by Carbon dioxide. 97. A comet is an icy small Solar System body that, when passing close to the Sun, heats up and begins to outgas, displaying a visible atmosphere or coma, and sometimes also a tail. 98. There is a difference of 360 degree longitude between 165 degree east and 165 degree west. The time interval is 24 hours because every 15 degree longitude, there is atime difference of 1 hour. 99. The origin of the river is a tiny reservoir named as Narmada Kund which is situated on the Amarkantak Hill in Anuppur District of East Madhya Pradesh. Amarkantak region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhyas and the Satpuras, with the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum.

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100. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are nontoxic, nonflammable chemicals containing atoms of carbon, chlorine, and fluorine. They are used in the manufacture of aerosol sprays, blowing agents for foams and packing materials as solvents and as refrigerants. CFCs contribute to ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere. 101. The "Demographic Transition" is a model that describes population change over time. Five stages of Demographic Transition: High birth rate and death rates however population growth is small. High birth rate but falling death rate. The total population begins to expand rapidly. Falling birth rate, continuing falling death rate. The population growth slows down. Low birth rate and low death rate. The population growth is small, and fertility continues to fall. Death rate slightly exceeds the birth rate and this causes population decline. 102. Wind flows from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure. This is due to density differences between the two air masses. 103. V.V. Giri was appointed as Acting President of India following the death of Zakir Hussain. He resigned in a few months to take part in the presidential elections. After this he became president of India and held office in 1969. V V Giri is the only president to have served as both an acting president and the president of India. 104. Chaturvedi recently headed a government panel, which in early August 2008, suggested ways to reduce the government's oil subsidy bill that included upward monthly revisions of fuel prices. 105. 106. HAL, Helicopter Division started manufacturing of helicopters in 1962, by entering an agreement with M/ s SUDAVIATION (Presently M/s AIRBUS (Former EUROCOPTER), France) for production of Aloutte III helicopters (Chetak). The first Chetak (Aloutte III) in 'Fly Away' condition delivered in 1965. 107. Tejas- Light combat aircraft Arjun- Main battle tank Dhanush- Ship-based missile Astra- Air-to-air missile 108. Joshi is being recognised for "his vision and leadership in bringing professionalism to the NGO movement in India, by effectively combining 'head' and 'heart' in the transformative development of rural communities. Joshi was the co-founder of

MockTime.com Professional Assistance for Development Action (PRADAN) and now works as an independent consultant for the NGO which works for rural poor, promoting self-help groups, developing locally suitable economic activities, mobilising finances and introducing systems to improve livelihoods of rural people. 109. Donald Duck made its first appearance 75 years ago on June 9, 1934 as a minor character in the Disney cartoon called "Little Wise Hen. 110. Sagarika is a nuclear-capable submarine-launched ballistic missile with a range of 700 kilometres. 111. 112. India has launched the Global-India Network of Knowledge (Global-INK) which will tap the knowledge power of its Diaspora. Global-INK will enable Indian experts living abroad to contribute to the development of the Indian social sector and share innovative ideas for the market. The network is a webbased next generation knowledge management, collaboration and business solution platform powered by Support Central. Overseas Indian Facilitation Centre (OIFC) has partnered with Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) to develop the Global-INK. 113. South Sudan is one of the poorest countries in the world. South Sudan is rich in agricultural land and has one of the largest populations of pastoralists in the world. South Sudan exports timber to the international market. Some of the states with the best known teaks and natural trees for timber are Western Equatoria and Central Equatoria. 114. 115. 116. Grigori Yakovlevich Perelman is a Russian mathematician who made landmark contributions to Riemannian geometry and geometric topology before apparently withdrawing from mathematics. 117. 118. Doris May Lessing was a British novelist, poet, playwright, librettist, biographer and short story writer. Her novels include The Grass is Singing (1950), The Golden Notebook (1962), The Good Terrorist, and Canopus in Argos. Lessing was awarded the 2007 Nobel Prize in Literature. 119. Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry on 27 June 2014 upgraded the National Industrial Classification 1987 (NIC-

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1987) to National Industrial Classification2008 (NIC-2008). It is an essential statistical standard for developing and maintaining comparable data base according to economic activities. 120. Living Planet Index (LPI), which measures more than 10,000 representative populations of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish, has declined by 52 per cent since 1970. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in South America followed closely by the Asia-Pacific region.

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. The overfishing and destruction of the Great Banks the destruction of salmon runs on rivers having been dammed and the devastation of sturgeon fishery on the Columbia river in the northwest United States exemplify: (a) Resources depletion (b) Overfishing and overpopulation (c) Over population in companion animals (d) Tragedy of the commons. Q2. A new pain killer stronger than morphine was found in the venom of: (a) Horse-shoe crab (b) Krait (c) Cone-snail (d) Scorpion Q3. Consider the following statements: 1.Eutropication disrupts natural functioning of the ecosystem bringing about negative environmental effects. 2.Enhanced growth of the-phytoplankton and algal blooms leads to lack of oxygen in the water body resulting in severe reduction in fish and other animal populations. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 2 (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q4. Consider the following statements: 1.Indian ministry of Environment and Forests proposes a 300 crore Cheetah Reproduction Project to translocate this exotic African species from Namibia to Palpur-Kuna Sanctuary in MP, 2.As per the proposal each cheetah will cost Rs 2 crore when total budget for Project tiger is only 80 crores for 600 National Parks and Sanctuaries. 3. Other countries are spending huge amounts to protect foreign species introduced in their habitats like European rabbits in Australia and Indian Tahr in South Africa. 4.India has taken a questionable decision to introduce cheetah, an alien exotic species,

into its biosphere -a proposition shunned by Wildlife experts. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1,2 (b) 1,2,3 (c) 1,2,4 (d) 1,2,3,4 Q5. Consider the following statements 1. Nitric acid is used in the production of fertilizers. 2. Sulphuric acid is used in the production of explosives. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q6. Which one of the following is correct? Setting of plaster of Paris is (a) dehydration (b) oxidation with atmospheric oxygen (c) hydration leading to another hydrate (d) combination with atmospheric C02 Q7. If a limestone piece is dipped in water, a bubble evolves. The bubbling is due to (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen (c) water vapour (d) carbon dioxide Q8. Scuba divers are at risk due to high concentration of dissolved gases while breathing air at high pressure under water. The tanks used by Scuba divers are filled with (a) air diluted with helium (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) a mixture of N2 and helium Q9. Statement I: Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen present in high concentration in air are dissolved in rain drops. Statement II: Oxyacids of sulphur and nitrogen make rain water acidic. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

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(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q10. The elements of a group in the periodic tabic (a) have similar chemical properties (b) have consecutive atomic numbers (c) are isobars (d) are isotopes Q11. Which one among the following is responsible for the expansion of water in the ocean? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrogen dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide Q12. Which of the following solutions will not change the colour of blue litmus paper to red? 1. Acid solution 2. Base solution 3. Common salt solution Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and3 (c) Only1 (d) Only2 Q13. Which one among the following fuels is used in gas welding? (a) L P G (b) Ethylene (c) Methane (d) Acetylene Q14. Size of nano-particles is in the range of (a) 1(T9 m (b) 1(T9 cm (c) 1(T19 cm (d) 1019 cm Q15. Serpasil is obtained from the (a) plant Rauwalfia serpentine (b) cinchona tree (c) extracts of tobacco leaf (d) extracts of ginger root Q16. Radiopharmaceuticals are (a) simple drugs (b) combination of drug and radioactive atom (c) mixtures of different drugs (d) compounds containing radio-nuclides

MockTime.com Q17. If a small raindrop falls through air (a) its velocity goes on increasing (b) its velocity goes on decreasing (c) its velocity goes on increasing for sometime and then becomes constant (d) it falls with constant speed for sometime and then its velocity increases Q18. The apparent weight of a steel sphere immersed in various liquids is measured using a spring balance. The greatest reading is obtained for the liquid (a) having the smallest density (b) having the largest density (c) in which the sphere was submerged deepest (d) having the greatest volume Q19. Fire fly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon of (a) fluorescence (b) phosphorescence (c) chemiluminescence (d) effervescence

Q20. In step-down transformer, the AC output gives the (a) current more than the input current (b) current less than the input current (c) current equal to the input current (d) voltage more than the input voltage Q21. Which one among the following colours has the highest wavelength? (a) Violet (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Red Q22. In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light wave of shortest wavelength is (a) accelerated and refracted the most (b) slowed down and refracted the most (c) accelerated and refracted the least (d) slowed down and refracted the least Q23. Sodium metal should be stored in (a) Alcohol (b) Kerosene oil (c) Water (d) Hydrochloric acid

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Q24. Which amongst the following is not a fundamental quantity? (a) Mass (b) Length (c) Velocity (d) Time Q25. 1 byte is equal to (a) 2 bits (b) 8 bits (c) 16 bits (d) 32 bits Q26. Which of the following pairs of devices is based on the phenomenon of total internal reflection? (a) Endoscope and kaleidoscope (b) Kaleidoscope and telescope (c) Periscope and microscope (d) Endoscope and periscope Q27. A storm is predicted if atmospheric pressure (a) Falls gradually (b) Rises gradually (c) Rises suddenly (d) Falls suddenly Q28. For a nuclear reactor enriched uranium fuel is needed. What is enriched uranium? (a) Pure U-235 (b) Pad having 50% U-235 (c) Fuel having nearly 5-6 % U-235 (d) Pure U-238 Q29. Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each State into territorial constituencies? (a) The President of India (b) The Parliament of India (c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India (d) The Lok Sabha alone Q30. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended which one of the following Panchayati Raj structures? (a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Panchayat Samiti at the block level only (b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level only (c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level

MockTime.com (d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Zilla Parishad Parishad at the district level only Q31. Match the following List I (Provision of the Constitution of India) List II (Source) A. Amendment of the Constitution Constitution of Germany B. Directive Principles - Constitution of Canada C. Emergency Power of the President Constitution of South Africa D. The Union-State Codes: A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 7 4 2 Q32. Which one of the following Commissions is not provided in the Constitution of India? (a) Planning Commission (b) UPSC (c) Finance Commission (d) Election Commission Q33. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on Indian soil? (a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (c) Protection of life and personal liberty according to procedure established by law (d) To practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business Q34. Which of the following statements with regard to InterState Council is/are correct? 1. It was established under the provisions of the Constitution of India. 2. The Council is a recommendatory body. 3. There is a standing committee of the Council under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to process matters for consideration of the Council. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these

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Q35. Statement I The principle of equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India. Statement II The President of India enjoys some special privileges under the Constitution of India [2011-I] (a) (b) (c) (d) Q36. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them? (a) It reduces conflict among different communities (b) Majority community does not impose its will on others (c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country (d) It speeds up the decision-making process and improves the chances of unity of the country Q37. What is/are the major difference/differences between a written and an unwritten Constitution? 1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all Constitutional Laws in the country and the unwritten Constitution is not the formal source. 2. A written Constitution is entirely codified whereas an unwritten Constitution is not. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q38. Which one among the following countries redefined the principles of 'Panchashila' for the purpose of domestic politics? (a) Ghana (b) China (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka Q39. Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill

MockTime.com (c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of the People and not to the Council of States (d) The House of the People has special powers with respect to the State List compared to the Council of States Q40. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct? 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in 1950. 2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. 3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Q41. Which of the following is/are departmcnt(s) in Ministry of Defence? 1. Department of Defence 2. Department of Defence Research and Development 3. Department of Defence Production 4. Department of Defence Finance Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 only Q42. Which would be the most appropriate description concerning the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha? It aspired to (a) do political work among youth, peasants and workers. (b) spread the philosophy of revolution among students. (c) initiate discussions regarding anti imperialism among workers. (d) help the formation of a Trade Union Movement in Punjab. Q43. The National Commission for Minorities has the following other members in addition to a chairperson and a vice-chairperson: (a) 3 members (b) 4 members (c) 5 members (d) 7 members

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Q44. One of the following is not an urban local body : (a) municipalities (b) town area committee (c) samitis (d) notified area committee Q45. Match the following lists. List I (Scientist) - List II (Work) A. F G Banting -1.Vaccination for small box B. J Lister -2. Germ theory C. Louis Pasteur -3.Use of carbolic acid as an antiseptic D. E Jenner -4.Discovery of insulin Codes A B C D (a) 4321 (b) 4213 (c) 3421 (d) 1432 Q46. What does airbag, used in safety of car driver, contain? (a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Sodium azide (c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium peroxide Q47. In human beings, the opening of the stomach into the small intestine is called (a) caecum (b) ileum (c) oesophagus (d) pylorus Q48. Assertion (A): The safety air bags fitted in some cars inflate during head-on impact of the car. Reason (R): The inflation is due to pumping of air into the balloon during the impact. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A ts true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Q49. Match the following List I - List II A. Wine -1.Barley B. Beer -2. Sugarcane juice C Whisky - 3.Grapes D. Rum - 4.Molasses Codes A B C D (a) 2143 (b) 3412

MockTime.com (c) 3142 (d) 2413 Q50. Consider the following statements 1.Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold environment in which cold-blooded animals can hardly move. 2. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only2 (c) Both1 and2 (d) Neither1 nor2 Q51. Which one among the following industries produces the most nonbiodegradable wastes? (a) Thermal power plants (b) Food processing units (c) Textile mills (d) Paper mills Q52. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes because of the presence of (a) sulphur in the cell (b) carbon in the cell (c) fat in the cell (d) amino acid in the cell Q53. In humans, which one among the following with reference to breathing is correct? (a) During inhalation, diaphragm relaxes (b) During exhalation, thorax cavity expands (c) During inhalation, intra-pleural pressure becomes more negative (d) Unlike inhalation, normal exhalation is an active process Q54. People suffering from 'anorexia nervosa' (a) develop paralysis (b) show poor reflex (c) cannot speak properly (d) eat very little and fear gaining weight Q55. Which one of the following diseases in humans can spread through air? (a) Dengue (b) Tuberculosis (c) HIV-AIDS (d) Goitre Q56. Which of the following part of blood carry out the function of body defence?

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(a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells (c) Platelets (d) Haemoglobins Q57. Match the following List I List II (Phase of Industrial (Feature) Revolution) A. First Phase 1. Rise of steel, chemical, electricity industries B. Third Phase 2. Rise of cotton mill C. Second Phase 3. Rise of steam engine D. Fourth Phase 4. Rise of petro chemicals, jet aircraft, computers Codes: A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 Q58. In the parlance of financial investment, the term bear denotes (a) an investor, who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall (b) an investor, who expects the price of a particular share to rise (c) a shareholder, who has an interest in a company, financially or otherwise (d) any lender, whether by making a loan or buying a bond Q59. The main functioning of the banking system is to (a) accept deposits and provide credit (b) accept deposits and subsidies (c) provide credit and subsidies (d) accept deposits, provide credit and subsidies Q60. Corporation tax in India is levied on income of a company. Which one of the following does not include Corporation tax? (a) Profit from business (b) Capital gain (c) Interest on securities (d) Sale bproceed ocf assets Q61. Which of the following theories form the basis of international trade? 1. Absolute cost difference 2. Comparative cost difference 3. Opportunity cost Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only

MockTime.com (d) 1,2 and 3 Q62. Which of the following is not an inclusion criteria for BPL survey of urban areas? (a) Place of residence (b) Type of roof (c) Social vulnerability (d) Occupational vulnerability Q63. Consider the following statements in respect of the aims of Bharat Nirman Programme: 1.To provide road connectivity to all villages with a population of 1000500 in plain and hilly areas. 2.To ensure enrolment of all girls between the age of 6 and 11 in schools. 3.To provide telephone connectivity to all remaining villages. 4.To provide drinking water to all uncovered habitations. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 Q64. Amniocentesis is legally banned because: (a) it affects the health of the mother (b) it harms the foetus (c) it causes the spread of AID Sran (d) it is used for the purpose of selection of the sex of the foetus Q65. The purpose of the India Brand Equity Fund is: (a) to promote inbound tourism (b) make Made in India a label of quality (c) to organize trade fairs (d) to provide venture capital to IT sector Q66. Which of the following is not part of the second generation of economic reforms identified by the government? (a) Public Sector reform (b) Legal systems reforms (c) Oil sector reforms (d) Reform of government and public institutions Q67. During the 19th Century, British investment in India was confined mostly to: (a) core and infrastructure sector (b) plantation sector (c) agribusiness sector

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(d) textiles Q68. The spread of black money is a major threat to the economic stability of the country. Among the following which may not be a reason for the spread of black money? (a) increasing defence expenditure (b) Shortage and black marketing in the 1950s and 1960s (c) The regime of economic controls which prevailed before liberalization (d) Manipulation of import export transactions Q69. ‗The Musalman‘, the handwritten daily newspaper in circulation since 1927, is published from which one of the following places? (a) Chennai (b) Hyderabad (c) Mysore (d) Lucknow

Q70. Who among the following was thrice elected President of the Indian National Congress? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Surendranath Banerjee (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhl (d) Shankaran Nair Q71. Consider the following statements relating to Raja Rammohan Roy 1. He knew that the spread of Western education was necessary to develop a national and scientific attitude in the Indian society. 2. He played a pioneering role in the religious and social reform movements of 19th century, Bengal. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q72. The ‗dual government‘ recommended by Lord Clive provided that the (a) criminal justice would be left to the Nawabi officials, while civil and fiscal matters would be controlled by the company

MockTime.com (b) company will look after fiscal matters and all the rest would be dealt by the Indian rulers (c) Indian rulers will deal with all the matters of administration under the supervision of a company official (d) Indian rulers will be only titular heads and all the powers shall be directly dealt by the company Q73. Which one among the following sums up Marx‘s view about history? (a) History is a record of the wars between various people (b) History is a succession of struggle between the oppressor .and the oppressed classes (c) History is a faithful record of the past events (d) None of the above Q74. Which one among the following was not a reform measure carried out by Mahmud Gawan of Bahmani kingdom? (a) The kingdom was divided into eight provnices or Tarafs (b) Nobles were paid salaries and were asked to maintain contingents of horses (c) A tract of land, Khalisa, was set apart for the expenses of the Tarafdar (d) Lands were measured and land taxes were fixed on that basis Q75. Which of the statements given below about Vivekananda are correct? 1. He believed that Vedanta was fully rational. 2. He criticised his contrymen for having lost touch with the outside world. 3. He condemned the caste system. 4. He considered the Veda to be infallible. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 Q76. Gandhiji led the Indian Nationalist Movement from the front and his leadership was motivated by a wider philosophy, he nurtured throughout the course of the movement. Which one among the following was a continuous movement based on this philosophy and not a specific movement? (a) Non-Cooperation Movement (b) Swadeshi Movement

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(c) Quit India Movement (d) Civil Disobedience Movement Q77. Which one among the following states was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse? (a) Nagpur (b) Jhansi (c) Sambalpur (d) Satara Q78. Which among the following materials were used for minting coins during the rule of the Mauryas? (a) Gold and Silver (b) Silver and Copper (c) Copper and Bronze (d) Gold and Copper Q79. Which chemical was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom? (a) Glucose (b) Fertilizer (c) Medicine (d) Sodium chloride Q80. Consider the following statements about the causes of success of the American Revolution 1. the remoteness of the American continent and British ignorance of the American continent led to the success of the Americans. 2. the fierce spirit of liberty drove the Americans to success. 3. the American military forces were superior to the British. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Q81. Which one among the following events was not associated with French Revolution? (a) Calling of the Estates General (b) Guillotine (c) Battle of Concord (d) Tennis Court Oath Q82. The Society of Jesus, whose followers were called Jesuits, was set-up by (a) Martin Luther (b) Ulrich Zwingli (c) Erasmus (d) Ignatius Loyola

MockTime.com Q83. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? 1. Early Buddhist literature is generally composed of the canonical text. 2. The Buddhist schools classify their canonical literature as only the Pitakas. Select the correct answer using. the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q84. Which of the following statements about visual culture in 18th and early 19th century North India is/are correct? 1. Painters from Patna and Murshidabad flocked to Calcutta and produced water colours in the English mode. 2. Landscape and portraiture became extremely important at this time. 3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani Das and Ram Das were adopted by the English East India Company to produce albums of Indian birds and animals. 4. While Indians were influenced by European artistic styles, European artists did not visit regional courts. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 4 only Q85. Which one of the following is the longest national highway in India? (a) NH 2 (b) NH 7 (c) NH 8 (d) NH 31 Q86. Which one of the following is the tide produced as a consequence of Moon and Sun pulling the Earth in the same direction? (a) Spring tide (b) Neap tide (c) High tide (d) Low tide Q87. Sal trees are the typical species of (a) Tropical rain forest (b) Tropical monsoon forest (c) Taiga forest (d) Tundra forest

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Q88. In the map given above four petrochemical centres are marked with numbers. Match them with the following four places and select the correct answer using the code given below 1 2 3 4 A. Koyali B. Trombay C. Jamnagar D. Mangalore A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 Q89. Which of the following seas are enclosed? 1. Andaman Sea 2. Arab Sea 3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and3 (d) 1 and 4 Q90. Which among the following states of India have common borders with Pakistan? (a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Rajasthan (b) Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan and Gujarat (c) Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan (d) Puniab, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan Q91. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Chilean Earthquake (February 2010)? 1. Scientists estimated that the Earth‘s axis of rotation had moved by 3 inches due to the earthquake. 2. Santa Maria island off the cost near Concepcion, Chile‘ second larget city, may have been raised by 2 m. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q92. In the interior of the Earth (a) the temperature falls with increasing depth

MockTime.com (b) the pressure falls with increasing depth (c) the temperature rises with increasing depth (d) both temperature and pressure fall with increasing depth Q93. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from west to East 1. Koyali 2. Bongaigaon 3. Mathura 4. Haldia Select the correct answer using the code given below Codes (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1 Q94. Statement I Anticyclone, which is a high pressure wind system, does not bring about significant change in weather condition. Statement II The outward movement of wind from the high pressure centre keeps limited scope for weather disturbance. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q95. Over 90% of the world's biomass is in (a) tropical rain forests (b) freshwater wetlands (c) topsoils (d) oceans Q96. The main aim of watershed management strategy of India is (a) promoting silviculture (b) hillslope management (c) arid land management (d) soil conservation Q97. The expression South Asia usually includes (a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and SriLanka (b) Nepal, Bhutan, India, Afghanistan, China, Pakistan and SriLanka (c) Bangladesh, India, China, Nepal, Japan, Pakistan and Maldives (d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka

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Q98. Which one among the following statesments about the International Date Line is not correct? (a) The International Date Line is largely based on the 180° meridian (b) The difference in time between the places just either side of the International Date Line is almost 1 day (c) The difference in time to the extent of 1 day on either side of the International Date Line is caused by inclined axis of the Earth (d) The International Date Line mostly passes through the Pacific Ocean Q99. Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal hills marks the origin of the river (a) Gandak (b) Chambal (c) Narmada (d) Ghaggar Q100. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q101. Which of the following statements regarding the duration of day and night is correct? (a) Difference is least near the Equator and progressively increases away from it (b) Difference is maximum at the Equator and progressively decreases away from it (c) Difference is least at the Tropics and progressively increases towards the Equator and Poles (d) Difference is maximum at the Tropics and progressively decreases towards the Equator and Poles Q102. Consider the following statements regarding ground water in India: 1. The large scale exploitation of ground water is done with the help of tube-wells. 2. The demand for ground water started increasing with the advent of green revolution. 3. The total replenishable ground water reserves is highest in the hilly tracts of Sikkim, Nagaland and Tripura. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

MockTime.com Q103. Which one of the following is the first geostationary, telecommunication satellite of India? (a) INSAT-IA (b) APPLE (c) ROHINI (d) ARYABHATTA Q104. Which one of the following countries has recently carried out military operations in Georgia? (a) USA (b) Poland (c) Russia (d) Kyrgyzstan Q105. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Pawan Munjal: Hero Honda Motors (b) Venu Srinivasan: TVS Motors (c) Deepak Parekh: Tata Steel (d) KV Kamath: ICICI Bank Q106. Consider the following statements in respect of protection of copyright in India 1. Copyright is a legal right given to creators of literarcy, dramatic, musical and artistic works and produces of cinematograph films and sound recordings. 2. Copyright protects only the expression and not the ideas. There is no copyright of in idea. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q107. Which one of the following countries' Central Bank has procured 200 metric tons of gold from the IMF in October 2009? (a) China (b) Sri Lanka (c) Singapore (d) India Q108. Who among the following were jointly awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2008? (a) MC Marykom, Vijender Singh, Sushil Kumar (b) MC Marykom, Vijender Singh, Saina Nehwal (c) Vijender Singh, Sushil Kumar, RS Rathore (d) MC Marykom, Sushil Kumar, RS Rathore

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Q109. Consider the following statements l. The Bhopal based Union Carbide India Limited was subsidiary of Dow chemical company at the time of the gas tragedy in 1984. 2. The Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster Act (1985) provided Government of India the rights to represent all victims of the disaster in or outside India. 3. The subsidiary, which had operated the Bhopal plant, was sold to Eveready Industries India Limited, in 1994. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q110. Which one of the following is an indigenously built light combat aircraft of India? (a) Akash (b) Vikrant (c) Tajas (d) Arjun Q111. Consider the following statements 1. India has a published nuclear doctrine. 2. The doctrine advocates 'no-first-use' policy. 3. The authority to release nuclear weapons for use resides in the person of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q112. Which of the following changes have been brought in Egypt after the recent popular uprising that overthrew President Hosni Mubarak? 1. Adopting a new Constitution. 2. Reducing presidential terms from 6 years to 4 years. 3. Limiting the President to two terms. 4. Presidential candidate must be over 40 years. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

MockTime.com Q113. The Operation Polo was associated with the annexation of which one among the following Princely States into Indian Union? (a) Kashmir (b) Junagadh (c) Travancore (d) Hyderabad Q114. Which one among the following statements about Mohammad Nasheed of Maldives is not correct? (a) He was the first President of Maldives to be elected through Multiparty elections (b) He become the President of Maldives in the year 2008 (c) He was a strong advocate of the policies of longtime President Maumoon Abdul Gayoom (d) He has been advocating and promoting democracy and Human Rights in Maldives Q115. Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He defeated (a) Andy Murray (b) Roger Federer (c) Novak Djokovic (d) David Ferrer Q116. Why was Kaushik Basu, the execonomic advisor to the Prime Minister of India, in news recently? He was appointed as (a) the President of the IMF (b) the President of the World Bank (c) the Economic Advisor of the United Nations (d) the Chief Economist of the World Bank Q117. British Scientist Robert Edwards, winner of Nobel Prize for Physiology and Medicine, passed away on April 10, 2013. What was so important about him? (a) He was the pioneer in the field of cloning (b) He led the human genome project (c) His pioneering works led to the birth of the first test tube baby (d) He discovered the artificial heart Q118. Non-military Confidence Building Measures (CBMs) in a peace process include 1. people to people contact across borders. 2. literary and cultural interaction under government and non-governmental agencies. 3. increase in travel facilities. 4. joint initiatives to tackle common socioeconomic problems. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2 and 3

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(b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these Q119. Manipur clinched the 20th Senior National Women's Football Championships title 2014 by defeating (a) Assam (b) Odisha (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala Q120. Which among the following teams won the Duleep Trophy Cricket Tournament, 2014? (a) East Zone (b) Central Zone (c) West Zone (d) South Zone 1. d 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. b 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. A 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. C 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. b 79. d 80. b 81. b 82. d 83. c 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. a 92. c 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. c 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. c 110. c 111. d 112. b 113. d 114. c 115. c 116. d 117. c 118. d 119. b 120. b 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Nitric acid is used in the production of fertilizers. The principal chemical produced form nitric acids ammonium nitrate, sulphuric acid is used in the production of explosives like TNT, nitroglycerine, gun cotton, etc. 6. Setting of plaster of Paris is the hydration leading to another hydrate i.e., gypsum. Setting42242 Gypsum Plasterof Paris11 CaSO. H O1 H O CaSO2H O22 + ¾¾¾¾® × 7. When limestone piece is dipped in water, the bubbles evolve due to evolution of carbon dioxide. CaCO3 + H2O ® Ca (OH)2 + CO2 8. The tanks used by Scuba divers are filled with air diluted with helium (i.e., He-O2 mixture) because unlike nitrogen, helium is

MockTime.com not soluble in blood even under high pressure. 9. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen present in high concentration in air dissolve in rain drops and form oxyacids of sulphur and nitrogen. These oxyacids are highly acidic in nature and therefore, they make rain water acidic.4NO2 +2H2O + O2 ¾¾®4HNO32SO2 +2H2O + O2 ¾¾®2H2 SO4 The pH of acid rain is4 -5 10. The periodic table is a tabular arrangement of the elements organised on a basis of their properties. 11. Carbon dioxide is responsible for the expansion of water in the ocean, CO2 causes global warming. 12. The blue litmus paper turns red in acidic solution and blue in basic solution. The neutral solution does not affect the litmus paper. Now since common salt solution is neutral hence do not show any colour change on litmus paper. 13. Acetylene is the only commercial fuel gas that can be used for both cutting and welding applications. 14. 15. 16. 17. Velocity of raindrop increases until it reaches the terminal velocity. 18. When a body immersed in a liquid, then the apparent weight of the body depends upon the densities of the liquids and volume of the portion of the solid immersed in liquid. So, the apparent weight of a steel sphere will be greatest for the liquid in which the sphere was submerged deepest. 19. Fire fly gives us cold light due to chemiluminescence i.e. light produced by chemical reaction. 20. In step-down transformer Np > Ns, Ep > Es, Ip < Is Here N, E and I used for no. of turns, emf and current respectively. 21. Different colours in increasing order of their wavelength: violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. 22. 23. Sodium metal should be stored in kerosene oil. Sodium is a very reactive metal. It is kept in kerosene to prevent it from coming in contact with oxygen and moisture. If this happens, it will react with the moisture present in air and form sodium hydroxide. This is a strongly exothermic reaction, and lot of heat is generated. Thus sodium is kept under kerosene.

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24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into territorial constituencies. 30. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme(1952).It recommended a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system-Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level. 31. Constitution of India is unique in itself. Many features of our constitution are borrowed from various sources around the world. 1. Amendment of the constitution Constitution of South Africa 2. Directive Principles- Irish Constitution 3. Emergency Powers of the President- Constitution of the Germany 4. The Union State RelationsConstitution of Canada 32. The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution of the Government of India in March 1950.It is not provided in the constitution of India. 33. According to article 21 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Supreme Court of India on 19 June 2013 in its decision established that right to life and liberty, enshrined under Article 21 of the Constitution, is available to foreign nationals also. 34. The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990. As the article 263 makes it clear that the Inter-State Council is not a permanent constitutional body for coordination between the States of the Union. It can be established 'at any time' if it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of such a Council. The Council is a recommendatory body. The Council shall consist of Prime Minister (Chairman), Chief Ministers of all States and union territories (Member), Administrators (UT) and Six Ministers of Cabinet rank to be nominated by

MockTime.com the Prime Minister (Member).This is not a standing committee. 35. According to Article 361, the principle of equality before the law is not applicable to the president of India because the president of India enjoys some special privileges under the Constitution of India. 36. 37. A written constitution is one which is found in one or more than one legal documents duly enacted in the form of laws. It is precise, definite and systematic and codified. An unwritten constitution is one in which most of the principles of the government have never been enacted in the form of laws. It consists of customs, conventions, traditions and some written laws bearing different dates. It is not codified. It is unsystematic, indefinite and unprecise.So, Written constitution is the formal source of all constitutional laws and Unwritten Constitution is not the formal source. 38. Indonesia redefined the principles of Panchashila for the purpose of domestic politics. It has been suggested that the five principles had partly originated as the five principles of the Indonesian state. In June 1945 Sukarno had proclaimed five general principles or pancasila on which future institutions were to be founded. Pancasila comprises of five principles held to be inseparable and interrelated: 1. Belief in the one and only God 2. Just and civilized humanity 3. The unity of Indonesia 4. Democracy 5. Social justice 39. The Constitution empowers Parliament of India to make laws on the matters reserved for States (States List). However, this can only be done if Rajya Sabha first passes a resolution by two-thirds supermajority granting such a power to the Union Parliament. The union government cannot make a law on a matter reserved for states without an authorisation from Rajya Sabha.So the House of People does not have special powers with respect to the state list. 40. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vicepresiding officer of the Lok Sabha.He/She is elected from amongst the members. It acquired a more prominent position after 1950. He holds office till either he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha or he himself resigns. 41. Ministry of Defence comprises of four Departments as Department of Defence

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(DOD), Department of Defence Production (DDP), Department of Defence Research & Development (DDR&D) and Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare. 42. Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha aspired to spread the philosophy of revolution among students. 43. 44. 45. 46. Airbag used for safety and protection of car driver possesses sodium azide. 47. The stomach shows division into two parts fundic and pyloric region. The pyloric region enters small intestine through pyloric valve of pylorus. 48. 49. Wine is an alcoholic beverage, produced from fermented juice, generally of grapes, Beer is the oldest alcoholic beverage manufactured by brewing and fermentaion of cereal grains (e.g., barley). Whisky is a type of distilled alcoholic beverage produced from molasses. Rum is also a distilled alcoholic beverage made from sugarcane‘s juice. 50. The warm blooded animals produce heat by converting their food to energy and maintain a constant body temperature thus may be active even in cold environment whereas cold blooded animals hibernate and need much less energy to survive. 51. The most non biodegradable wastes are produced by thermal power plants. They utilize radioactive elements as raw material and thus evolves radioactive wastes which takes a very long period (hundreds of years) for losing its radioactivity completely. 52. Cutting and peeling of onions bring tears to the eyes because of the presence of amino acid (methionine and cystine) in the cell. 53. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens enlarging the volume of the thoracic cavity. Thus, reduction in intrathoracic pressure takes place. 54. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by improper food restriction, inappropriate taking meal habits or rituals, obsession with having a slim body, and an irrational fear of weight gain, and a distorted body self-perception. 55. The TB bacteria are put into the air when a person with TB disease of the lungs or throat coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings. People nearby may breathe in these bacteria and become infected.

MockTime.com 56. White blood cells (WBC) bring out the function of body defence. 57. Phases of Industrial Revolution: 1. First phase- Rise of Cotton mill 2. Second phaseRise of steel, chemicals, electricity industries. 3. Third phase- Rise of steam engine 4. Fourth phase- Rise of petrochemicals, jet aircraft, computers 58. The term bear denotes an investor who believes that a particular security or market is headed downward. Bears attempt to profit from a decline in prices. Bears are generally pessimistic about the state of a given market. cBearish sentiment can be applied to all types of markets including commodity markets, stock markets and the bond market. 59. The main functioning of the banking system is to accept deposits and provide credit. The bank collects deposits from public. These are savings, fixed, current and recurring deposits. The bank advances loan to the business community and other members of the public. The types of bbank loans and advances are oaverdraft, cash credits, loans and diascounting of bill of exchange. 60. Generally, the income of a company falls under any of the following 4 heads of income: (1) Profits or gains from the business (2) Income from property, whether it is housing, commercial, self-occupied or let-out. If the property is used in the company's business operations, it does not fall under this head. (3) Capital gains (4) Income from other sources including winnings from lotteries, races and interest on securities. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. The Musalman is the oldest Urdulanguage daily newspaper published from Chennai in India. The newspaper was founded by Syed Azmatullah in 1927. The Musalman is possibly the only handwritten newspaper in the world. 70. Dadabhai Naoroji 2nd Session Calcutta Dec. 27-30, 1886 Dadabhai Naoroji 9th Session Lahore Dec. 27-30, 1893 Dadabhai Naoroji 22nd Session Calcutta Dec. 26-29, 1906 Dadabhai Naoroji

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71. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was an Indian socio-educational reformer who was also known as 'Maker of Modern India' and 'Father of Modern India'. He was born on May 22, 1774 into a Bengali Hindu family. He was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj, one of the first Indian socio-religious reform movements. He advocated the study of English, Science, Western Medicine and Technology. He was given the title 'Raja' by the Mughal Emperor. 72. Robert Clive established the military and political supremacy of the East India Company in Bengal. Under the dual Government company will look after fiscal matters and all the rest would be dealt by the Indian rulers. 73. Karl Marx was a German philosopher, economist, sociologist, journalist, and revolutionary socialist.His famous books are The Communist Manifesto(1848) and Das Kapital (1867-1894) . According to him,History is a succession of struggle between the oppressor and the oppressed classes. 74. Mahmud Gawan was a prime minister in the Bahamani Sultanate of Deccan about twenty three years from 1458 to 1481 A.D. Gawan introduced the following administrative reforms: (i) The existing four provinces were divided into two each and created eight 'Tarafs'. (ii) He reduced the powers of the governors of these 'Tarafs' (Provinces) . (iii) In each of these eight 'Tarafs' some areas were kept reserve for the control of the Central Government and for their administrative control, officials were appointed by the Centre. (iv) Orders were issued by him for placing one fort in each province under the charge of the governor and others under the control of military commanders appointed by the Sultan. (v) He put a check on the powers of the nobles. (vi) He introduced a fair system of justice. 75. Swami Vivekananda, known in his premonastic life as Narendranath Datta, was born in an affluent family in Kolkata on 12 January 1863. He was a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India, and contributed to the concept of nationalism in colonial India. His vast knowledge of Eastern and Western culture as well as his deep spiritual insight, fervid eloquence, brilliant conversation, broad human sympathy, colourful personality, and handsome figure made an irresistible appeal to many types of Americans who came in contact with him.

MockTime.com Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Math and the Ramakrishna Mission. He later travelled to the United States, representing India at the 1893 Parliament of the World Religions. 76. Gandhi's vision of a free India was not a nation-state but a confederation of selfgoverning, self-reliant, selfemployed people living in village communities, deriving their right livelihood from the products of their homesteads. 77. Satara was first annexed by lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of lapse. The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy purportedly devised by Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General for the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856. By applying the doctrine of lapse, Dalhousie annexed the States of Satara (1848 A.D.) , Jaipur (1849 A.D.) , Sambhalpur (1849 A.D.) , Bahat (1850 A.D.) , Udaipur (1852 A.D.) , Jhansi (1853 A.D.) , and Nagpur (1854 A.D.) . 78. During the rule of Maurya Dynasty Silver and Copper were used for minting coins. 79. Sodium Cloride (Salt) was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom, because Mahatma Gandhi tried to break salt law by organizing dandi March. 80. The causes of the success of American revolution include spirit of freedom of American people and less knowledge about American continent by the Britishers etc. 81. A guillotine is an apparatus designed for carrying out executionsby beheading. The device is best known for its use in France, in particular during the French Revolution. 82. Ignatius of Loyola founded the society.He composed the Spiritual Exercises to help others follow the teachings of Jesus Christ. 83. Canonical texts are those that are linked to Gautama Buddha in one way or another. Canonical texts comprise three different kind of texts - the sutras (discourses) , vinaya (discipline) and abhidharma (analytical texts) ,together they are called the 'Three Baskets' or Tipitaka (in Pali language) and Tripitaka (in Sanskrit) . 84. 85. National Highway 7 is the longest national highway in India. It runs through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The highway connects several important Indian cities such as Varanasi, Rewa,Jabalpur, Nagpur, Adilabad, Nirmal, Kamareddy, Hyderabad,

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Kurnool, Anantapur, Chikkaballapur, Bangalore, Krishnagiri, Dharmapuri, Salem, Namakkal, Velur, Karur,Dindigul, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.It is 2,369 km from Varanasi to Kanyakumari. 86. Spring tides occur when the sun and moon are directly in line with the earth and their gravitational pulls reinforce each other. 87. The trees in Monsoon Forests shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in summer on account of a long dry spell. The rainfall suited for such forests is between75 to 200 cm. Sal is of the dry deciduous variety of tropical monsoon forest. 88. Koyli- Gujarat Trombay- Suburb of Mumbai Jamnagar- Gujarat MangloreKarnataka 89. Sea of Azov is a sea in south-eastern Europe. Arabian Sea is the northwestern part of the Indian Ocean. 90. Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan and Gujarat have common borders with Pakistan. 91. Santa Maria is an island located in the eastern group of the Azores archipelago. It is located at Azores Platform in Mid-Atlantic Ridge. 92. The temperature inside the earth's surface increases with depth.From 20 m below the earth's surface, the temperature increases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for every 40 m of descent. This rapid increase of temperature continues up to a great depth. 93. The oil refineries of India from west to east:Koyali (Gujarat), Mathura(U.P), Haldia (West Bengal), Bongaigaon (Assam). 94. 95. Biomass is the mass of living biological organisms in a given area or ecosystem at a given time. Over 90% of the Biomass is in Oceans. 96. The main objectives of the watershed management strategy of India are to restore the ecological balance by harnessing, conserving and developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water. 97. South Asia comprises the sub-Himalayan countries. According to the United Nations geographical region classification, the current territories areAfghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistanand Sri Lanka. 98. The difference in time to the extent of 1 day on either side of the International Date

MockTime.com Line is caused by rising of the sun in the east and not by inclined axis of the earth. 99. The westerlies generally blow between 30° and 60° latitude in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres from the west towards the east. These winds are thus called westerly winds, after the direction from whence the winds come.It blows below the subtropical highs in the Southern Hemisphere. 100. 101. On the equator, the day and night stay approximately the same length all year round. 102. Large scale exploitation of ground water is done with the help of tube wells. Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan receive less than 40 cm annual rainfall and are deficient in surface water resources. As such, these states exploit more than 85 per cent of the available ground water for irrigation. The demand for ground water for irrigation started increasing in Punjab and Haryana with the advent of Green Revolution in 1960s. States/ union territories with small replenishable ground water resource of less than one BCM/year are Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Delhi, Lakshadweep and Pondicherry. 103. The Ariane Passenger PayLoad Experiment (APPLE), an experimental GEO communication satellite was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on July 19th 1981. APPLE was an experimental communications satellite with a C-Band transponder. This satellite was launched by Ariane, a launch vehicle of the European Space Agency. 104. Russia has recently carried out its military operations in Georgia. 105. Deepak Parekh- Chairman of HDFC 106. Copyright is a bundle of rights given by the law to the creators of literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works and the producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. The rights provided under Copyright l aw include the rights of reproduction of the work, communication of the work to the public, adaptation of the work and translation of the work. Copyright protects the expressions and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea. The Copyright Act, 1957 governs the subject of copyright law in India.

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107. 108. The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (RGKR) is the India's highest award given for best sportsperson every year. This award is named after the former Prime Minister of India late Rajiv Gandhi and was established in the year 1991-92. The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratn Award 2008 was given to MC MaryKom(Boxing), Vijender Singh(Boxing) and Sushil Kumar(Wrestling). 109. A significant day in Union Carbide's recent history was August 4, 1999 when it was announced that Union Carbide would become a subsidiary of The Dow Chemical Company ("TDCC") as part of a transaction valued at $11.6 billion. This transaction closed on February 6, 2001. Since Union Carbide's acquisition by TDCC, Union Carbide sells most of the products it manufactures to TDCC and is an important part of the Dow family of companies. In 1994, UCC sold its entire stocks to McLeod Russel India and was renamed 'Eveready Industries India'. 110. The Tejas is an Indian single-seat, single-jet engine, multi-role light fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. 111. A draft nuclear doctrine was prepared by the National Security Advisory Board chaired by the late K. Subrahmanyam and handed over to the government on August 17, 1999. The salient features of the government statement included the following: India will build and maintain a credible minimum deterrent; follow a no-firstuse posture; and will use nuclear weapons only "in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere. 112. The military junta, headed by effective head of state Mohamed Hussein Tantawi, announced on 13 February that the constitution would be suspended, both houses of parliament dissolved and the military would rule for six months (until elections could be held). 113. Operation Polo, the codename of the Hyderabad "Police Action" was a military operation in September 1948 in which the Indian Armed Forces invaded the State of Hyderabad and overthrew its Nizam annexing the state into the Indian Union. 114. In the 2008 presidential election, Nasheed was elected as the candidate of the first opposition coalition defeating President Maumoon Abdul Gayoom who had ruled the Maldives as President for 30 continuous

MockTime.com years. Nasheed assumed office on 11 November 2008. 115. 116. 117. Sir Robert Geoffrey Edwards was an English physiologist and pioneer in reproductive medicine and in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) in particular. Edwards successfully pioneered conception through IVF, which led to the birth of Louise Brown on 25 July1978. 118. All statements are correct. 119. Manipur on 12 May 2014 won the 20th Senior National Women's Football Championships title at the Golaghat Stadium in Assam. It defeated Odisha. 120. Central Zone won the tournament after beating South Zone by 9 runs in the final at Delhi.

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MockTime.com

CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. The outlawed practice of blast fishing remains widespread in: 1.Malaysia 2.Tanzania 3.Indonesia 4.Coastal Africa (a) 1,2,3 (b) 1,3,4 (c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2,4 Q2. Polar bears hold cures for: 1.Osteoporosis 2. breast cancer 3.kidney failure 4.type II diabetes (a) 1, 2 (b) 2 3 (c) 1 3 (d) 1 4 Q3. Study the following statements: 1.Unlike in India, no unwanted stray dogs and cats are seen on streets or in the residential localities in the United states. 2.In the United States alone, between 3 and 5 million stray dogs and cats are euthanized each year because no one volunteers to adopt them. Which of the following above statements are true? (a) 1,2 only (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q4. Of late a considerable decline in the house sparrows population in Delhi has been observed. It is presumably due to : 1.Gradual change in architecture like tall glass buildings with no cracks or crevices like old electricity meters for them to nest. 2.Lack of kitchen gardens, native herbs, shrubs and trees. 3.Extensive use of pesticides and even unleaded petrol that have killed worms and insects sparrows feed on. 4.Fewer open vegetable and grain markets. The correct response is

(a) 1,2 (b) 3,4 (c) 1,3,4 (d) 2, 3, 4 Q5. What is the purpose of adding baking soda to dough? (a) To generate moisture (b) To give a good flavour (c) To give good colour (d) To generate carbon dioxide Q6. Which one of the following is heavy water used in nuclear reactor? (a) Water having molecular weight18 u (b) Water having molecular weight20 u (c) Water at4°C but having molecular weight19 u (d) Water below the ice in a frozen sea Q7. Which one of the following chemicals is commonly used by farmers to destroy we eds? (a) DDT (b) Malathion (c) Methyl bromide (d) 2,4-D Q8. Which one of the following is not needed in a nuclear fission reactor? (a) Moderator (b) Coolant (c) Accelerator (d) Control device Q9. Statement I: On mixing with water, plaster of Paris hardens. Statement II: By combining with water, plaster of Paris is converted into gypsum. CaS04 -2Hp Gypsum (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q10. Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition because they lose their clean sing effect due to formation of insoluble (a) esters (b) alcohols (c) hydrocarbons

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(d) long chain fatty acids Q11. Consider the following Statements. Statement I Chlorine radicals CI* initiate the chain reaction for ozone depletion. Statement II Gaseous hypochlorous acid and chlorine are photolysed by sunlight. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q12. Date of manufacture of food items fried in oil should be checked before buying because oils become rancid due to (a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) hydrogenation (d) decrease in viscosity Q13. Which one among the following is a micronutrient present in soil for various crops? (a) Calcium (b) Manganese (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium Q14. An example of lyophilic colloid is (a) milk (b) gum (c) fog (d) blood Q15. Catalysts in chemical reactions 1.alter the rate of the reaction. 2.are required in stoichiometric amounts in the reaction. 3.undergo changes in their structures during the reaction. 4.can be reused in the same reaction. 5.change the order of the reaction. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1,2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Q16. The half-life of radiopharmaceuticals should be

MockTime.com (a) two times the diagnostic procedure (b) 1.5 times the diagnostic procedure (c) 10 times the diagnostic procedure (d) half of the diagnostic procedure Q17. Consider the following satements X-rays 1. can pass through aluminum. 2. can be deflected by magnetic field. 3. move with a velocity less than the velocity of ultraviolet ray in vacuum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Q18. If an object having mass of 1 kg is subjected to a force of 1 N it moves with (a) a speed of 1 m/s (b) a speed of 1 km/s (c) an acceleration of 10 m/s2 (d) an acceleration of 1 m/s2 Q19. Transformer is a kind of appliance that can 1. increase power 2. increase voltage 3. decrease voltage 4. measure current and voltage Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Q20. A rectifier is an electronic device used to convert (a) AC voltage into DC voltage (b) DC voltage into AC voltage (c) sinusoidal pulse into square pulse (d) None of the above Q21. Dispersion process forms spectrum due to white light falling on a prism. The light wave with shortest wavelength (a) refracts the most (b) does not change the path (c) refracts the least (d) is reflected by the side of the prism

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Q22. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by (a) Visible light (b) X-rays (c) Sound (d) Gamma rays Q23. In uranium-235(U235 ), fission occurs when it captures 1.Gamma particle 2.Fast neutron 3.Slow neutron (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 2 only Q24. Consider the following statements: 1.Radio signals (or radio programmes) can be received anywhere on the earth. 2.Radio waves are able to penetrate the ionosphere. Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Neither1 nor 2 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Q25. 1 KB (kilobyte) and 1 MB (megabyte) are respectively equal to (a) 1024 bytes and 1000 kilobytes (b) 1000 bytes and 100 kilobytes (c) 1000 bytes and 10000 bytes (d) 1024 bytes and 100 kilobytes Q26. For which one of the following is capillarity not the only reason? (a) Blotting of ink (b) Rising of underground water (c) Spread of water drop on a cotton cloth (d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage Q27. If the current flowing through a heater coil is doubled, the heat produced will become (a) Double (b) Four times (c) Eight times (d) Half Q28. Highly enriched uranium (HEU), containing nearly 90% U-235, is used in (a) High speed nuclear reactors (b) Nuclear submarines (c) Producing nuclear weapons

MockTime.com (d) Nuclear physics research Q29. Consider the following statements 1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is prescribed in the Constitution of India. 2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union Public Service Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only I (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q30. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947? (a) R K Shanmukham Chetty (b) John Mathai (c) Liaquat Ali Khan (d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh Q31. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney General of India 1. He is appointed by the President. 2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge of High Court. 3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q32. Consider the following statements 1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent. 2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q33. What are the methods adopted by civil society activists? (a) Written and oral communication

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(b) Social movements (c) Resistance movements, individually or collectively (d) Collective people's struggles Q34. Which one among the following is a function of the ProTem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Conduct of the proceedings of the house in the absence of the Speaker (b) To check if the election certificates of the members of the house are in order (c) Swear in the members of the house and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected (d) Give his assent to the bills passed by the house Q35. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment? 1. The manner of election of the President of India. 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states. 3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts. 4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 Q36. Which one among the following pairsof level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched? (a) Central Government: Union List (b) Local Governments: Residuary powers (c) State Governments: State List (d) Central and State Government: Concurrent List Q37. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by (a) the majority party in the house adopting a noconfidence motion (b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership of the house (c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership of the house (d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the house

MockTime.com Q38. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as PESA law. Which one among the following statements regarding PESA law is not correct? (a) PESA was meant to provide selfgovernance in the scheduled areas (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas (c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals (d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance rights of the tribals Q39. Which of the following pairs of constitutional authority and procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched? 1. President: Elected by an electoral college consisting of elected MLAs and MPs 2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoral college consisting of MLAs and MPs 3. Speaker: The House of People chooses after its first sitting Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Q40. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The President may (a) assent within six months (b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible (c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill (d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses Q41. Consider the following statements about State Election Commission? 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction and control of election to the panchayats. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3

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(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only Q42. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule? (a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura Polity C-121 1.

MockTime.com List I - List II Agent of Transmission Disease - Transmitted A. Anopheles mosquito -1.Kala-azar B. Culex mosquito -2. Dengue C. Aedes -3.Malaria D. Sandfly -4.Filana Codes A B C D (a) 3241 (b) 1423 (c) 1243 (d) 3421

Q43. One of the following is not listed among the minorities in India: (a) Muslims (b) Jains (c) Buddhists (d) Christians

Q49. A milkman puts banana leaf in milk jar, because banana leaf (a) gives a fresh flavour to milk (b) makes the milk acidic and resistant to yeast (c) makes the milk basic and resistant to yeast (d) increases the whiteness of milk

Q44. Which of the following article empowers the President to call for joint sitting of both houses? (a) Art 101 (b) Art 102 (c) Art 108 (d) Art 110

Q50. A deficiency of which one of the following minerals is most likely to lead to an immunodeficiency? (a) Calcium (b) Zinc (c) Lead (d) Copper

Q45. Which of the following part of blood carry out the function of body defence? (a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells (c) Platelets (d) Haemoglobins

Q51. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes smaller. It is so to (a) reduce metabolism (b) reduce transpiration (c) maintain natural growth (d) protect plant from animals

Q46. The characterisitic odour of garlic is due to which one of the following? (a) Chlorine-containing compounds (b) Fluorine-containing compounds (c) Nitrogen-containing compounds (d) Sulphur-containing compounds

Q52. If we sprinkle common salt on an Earthworm, it dies due to (a) osmotic shock (b) respiratory failure (c) toxic effect of salt (d) closure of pores of skin

Q47. Match the following List-I(Vitamin) - List-II (Chemical Compound) A. Vitamin-A -1.Thiamine B. Vitamin-B1 -2. Retinol C. Vitamin-C -3.Ascorbic acid D. Vitamin-E -4.Tocopherol Codes ABC D (a) 4132 (b) 2314 (c) 4312 (d) 2134

Q53. Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood? (a) Methane (b) Nitrogen dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

Q48. Match the following

Q54. Which of the following structures of a plant is responsible for transpiration? (a) Xylem (b) Root (c) Stomata

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(d) Bark Q55. Which one among the following structures or cells is not present in connective tissues? (a) Chondrocytes (b) Axon (c) Collagen fibre (d) Lymphocytes Q56. Match the following List I (Disease) - List II (Part of Human Body Affected) A. Conjunctivities -1.Eyes B. Dermatitis -2. Joints C. Gout -3.Skin D. M eningitis -4.Spinal cord Codes A B C D (a) 2413 (b) 1324 (c) 2314 (d) 1423 Q57. Consider the following statements 1. In India the minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction is 50 paise. 2. Coins below 50 praise is not a legal tender for payment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q58. Which one among the following is an appropriate description of deflation? (a) it is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies (b) It is a persistent recession in the economy (c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services (d) It is fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time Q59. The income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is (a) less than one (b) less than zero (c) equal to one (d) greater than one Q60. According to the Companies Act, 2013, 'nominal capital' implies (a) such part of capital, which has been called for payment

MockTime.com (b) the maximum amount of share capital of a company (c) such part of capital, which has been received by a company from its shareholders (d) such capital as the company issues from time to time for subscription Q61. Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India? (a) Income tax (b) Customs duuties (c) Service tax (d) Motor Vehicle tax Q62. The objective of agricultural price policy is: (a) to ensure that the producer gets a remunerative price (b) to maintain a reasonable terms of trade between agricultural and nonagricultural sectors (c) to protect the nonproducing consumer (d) all of these Q63. Which of the following functions is not performed by the Reserve Bank of India? (a) It acts as banker to central and state governments under agreements signed with them. (b) It issues currency and coins of all denominations. (c) It handles the borrowing programme of state governments. (d) It maintains orderly conditions in the foreign exchange market. Q64. Private sector cannot be expected to invest in public goods because: (a) the returns on public goods are not attractive (b) the problem of non-exclusion (c) cost recovery is not adequate (d) for direct return on investment Q65. Government has recently allowed 100 percent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in many strategic sectors. Which of the following sectors has not been opened up? (a) Space (b) Refinery (c) ecommerce (d) Power Q66. Depository services refer to (a) a new scheme of fixed deposits

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(b) method of regulating stock exchanges (c) in agency for safekeeping securities (d) an advisory service to investors Q67. Which of the following is the deepest sea port in India? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Navi Mumbai (b) Tuticorin Port (c) Gangavaram Port (d) Dhamra Port Q68. Tobin Tax refers to (a) a levy on local bodies which do not utilize their funds properly (b) a tax to prevent speculation in shares (c) a tax to prevent speculative flight of capital (d) a tax on expenditure on luxury items Q69. The ‗Arthasastra‘ is a treatise on which one of the following? (a) Economics (b) Environment (c) Political Philosophy (d) Religion in Administration

Q70. Who among the following has started the Public Works Department in India in AD 1848? (a) Lord William Bentinck (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Cornwallis Q71. Sheikh Moin-ud-din, Bakhtiyar Kaki and Farid-ud-din Ganji-Shakar were (a) prominent military leaders of the Sultanate period (b) prominent painters from the Sultanate period (c) prominent chisti saints (d) prominent poets from the courts of the Sultanate period Q72. Consider the following statements relating to the famous Muzaffarpur murders (1908) 1. The bomb, which was hurled at their carriage of Mrs Pringle and her daughter was actually intended for Mr Kingsford, the District Judge of Muzaffarpur.

MockTime.com 2. The revolutionaries wanted to kill Mr Kingsford, because he had inflicted severe punishments on Swadeshi activists. 3. Khudiram and Prafulla Chaki had to pay the penalty for their action by death. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q73. Which of the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi‘s philosophy of Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. Truth and non-violence are its two vital ingredients. 2. The follower of Satyagraha would resist evil but not hate the evil doer. 3. The Satyagrahi would, if necessary, inflict suffering on himself, and also the evil doer. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2 Q74. Consider the following statement and identify the author of the statement using the codes given below I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country, in whose making they have an effective voice, an India in which there shall be no high class and low class of people, an India in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony. (a) Baba Saheb Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Gurudev Tagore (d) Pandit Nehru Q75. In 1856, Awadh would not have been annexed with the British empire if the Nawab of Awadh had (a) allied with the British (b) not refused to introduce reforms as suggested by the British (c) fought against the British (d) a natural heir Q76. Which of the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement is/are correct? 1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in parts of the Madras and Bombay Presidencies.

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2. The Permanent Settlement created a new class of landlords with hereditary rights on land. 3. The landlords created by the Permanent Settlement could never be removed under any circumstance. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q77. Which one among the following Indus cities was known for water management? (a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro (c) Harappa (d) Dholavira Q78. Which one among the following was the immediate cause of attack by Nawab Sirajud-Daula on Calcutta in 1756? (a) Refusal of the English Company to pay the overdue trade tax (b) The English conspired against the Nawab with a view to depose him from the Throne (c) Siraj-ud-Daula wanted to drive out the English from Bengal (d) Refusal of the English to demolish the fortification of Calcutta Q79. Statement I: There was great exodus of Jaina monks under the leadership of Bhadrabahu to the Deccan following severe famine in the Ganga valley towards the end of Chandragupta‘s reign. Statement II: Chandragupta Maurya joined the Jaina order as a monk. (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q80. Consider the following ‗India would be far more reliable as a base for operations. Moreover, the prospect of a settlement will be greatly enhanced by the disappearance of Gandhi, who had for years torpedoed every

MockTime.com attempt at a settlement.‘ The above statement was made by the British in the context of (a) Kheda Satyagraha (b) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Quit India Movement (d) Non-Cooperation Movement Q81. Which one among the following events was associated with American War of Independence? (a) Tennis Court Oath (b) Boston Tea Party (c) Fall of Bastille (d) Reign of Terror Q82. Who among the following was not associated with the activities of the Theosophical Society? (a) Madame H P Blavatsky (b) Mr A O Hume (c) Col H S Olcott (d) Mrs Annie Besant Q83. Statement I: The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka led by a Brah mana named Basavanna. Statement II: The Lingayats worshipped Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Q84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I(Editor ) - List II (Journal/ Newspaper) A. S.A. Dange- 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette B. Muzaffar Ahmed - 2. Inquilab C. Ghulam Hussain - 3. Navayug D. M. Singaravelu - 4. The Socialist Code: (a) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (b) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1 (c) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (d) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 Q85. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of black pepper in India? (a) Tamil Nadu

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(b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Kanha-Bandipur-Dudwa-Indravati (c) Indravati-Kanha-Dudwa-Bandipur (d) Dudwa-Kanha-Bandipur-Indravati

Q86. Which one of the following is an object with such a strong gravitational field that even light cannot escape from its surface? (a) Neutron Star (b) White Dwarf (c) Black hole (d) Supernova Star

Q92. Asia has large areas of inland drainage. Why is it so? (a) Rainfall is seasonal and scanty (b) There is a number of intermontane plateaus (c) River channels are obstructed by lava flows (d) It is a very large continent

Q87. Which one of the following regions is culturally closer to India but ethnically closer to China? (a) Central Asia (b) West Asia (c) Polynesia (d) South-East Asia Q88. Which one of the following countries is located South of the equator? (a) Cameroon (b) Sudan (c) Nigeria (d) Rwanda Q89. Match the following Listl List II (Sphere of the Earth) (Main Constituent of the Sphere) A. Lithosphere -1 Living objects B.Hydrosphere -2 Mixture of gases C. Atmosphere -3 Water D. Biosphere -4 Soil Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 Q90. Which of the following factors influence ocean currents? 1. Rotation of the Earth. 2. Air pressure and wind. 3. Ocean water density 4. Revolution of the Earth Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given tiger reserves of India from North to South? (a) Dudwa-Kanha-Indravati-Bandipur

Q93. According to the Census 2011, which one among the following Union Territories has the least population? (a) Daman and Diu (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (c) Lakshadweep (d) Puducherry Q94. Statement I El Nino is a temperature rising phenomenon over the Pacific Ocean and usually causes dry monsoon in South Asia. Statement II Tsunamis are usually not noticed as the massive ocean waves move silently but assume destructive form as these travel through shallow waters of continental shelves. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q95. Which one among the following is the type of the Comoros Islands, which lie in the Indian Ocean between Northern Madagascar and the African Coast? (a) Volcanic (b) Glacial eroded (c) Eolian deposited (d) Folded Q96. Surface water resources are highest in (a) Ganga plains (b) North-Eastern India (c) Peninsular India (d) Indus plains Q97. Match the following 3 List I List II (Hill Station) (Location in Map) A. Dharamsala B. Almora B. Nainital D. Darjeeling 2 4 1 Codes A B C D

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(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 Q98. Which one among the following is not a cause of generation of ocean currents? (a) Planetary winds (b) Variation in ocean water temperature (c) Revolution of the Earth (d) Shape and configuration of the coastliness Q99. The westerlies have their origin in the (a) polar highs (b) subtropical highs (c) equatorial lows (d) sub polar lows Q100. Albedo effect would be relatively higher in (a) early morning and late evening (b) early morning only (c) noon (d) late evening only Q101. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of india from west to East. (a) Koyali, Kochi. Panipat, Mathura (b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura (c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura (d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi Q102. Which one of the following would have happened if the Himalayas did not exist? (a) Monsoon rains would have taken place in winter months (b) Coastal India would have experienced Mediterranean climate (c) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter (d) North western part of India would have experienced humid condition Q103. To encourage increase in the quality, quantity and availability of food in the world the World Food Prize is founded by (a) Prof. MS Swaminathan (b) UNDP (c) Professor Norman Borlaug (d) WHO Q104. Which one of the following books had been named as winner of the Best of the Booker Award in 2008? (a) The Enchantress of Florence (b) Disgrace

MockTime.com (c) Midnight's Children (d) The Siege of Krishnapur Q105. The aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov procured by India from Russia is renamed as (a) INS Virat (b) INS Godavari (c) INS Trishul (d) INS Vikramaditya Q106. In May, 2009 European Space Agency (ESA) successfully launched two of its most ambitious astronomy missions to unveil the secrets of the darkest, coldest and oldest parts of the universe. Name the two most complex science satellites ever built in Europe used in this mission. (a) ERS-2 and ERS-Envisat (b) GOCE and Proba-1 (c) Herschel and Planck (d) Rosetta and Hubble Q107. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Carlos Ghosn: Nissan Motor Company 2. Bill Green: Accenture 3. Carlos Bartz: Yahoo 4. Andy Bond: Vodafone Codes (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these Q108. Which one of the following pairs with respect to computer is not correctly matched? (a) 1 megabyte: (1024) × (1024) bytes (b) Compiler: A programme which translates a high-level language programme into machine language (c) Liveware: The users working on the system (d) Plotter: An electronic device used to convert digital electronic signals to communication channel electronic signals and vice-versa Q109. Who among the following sport starts was conferred honorary Lieutenant Colonel rank by the Territorial Army? (a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Kapil Dev (c) Abhinav Bindra (d) Saina Nehwal Q110. Which one of the following is the name of the Airborne Early Warning And Control

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System (AEWACS) inducted in the Indian Air Force in 2009? (a) Phoenix (b) Eagle (c) Kite (d) Phalcon Q111. Which of the following statements about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is/are correct? 1. It will facilitate real time access of classified criminal data to the law enforcement authorities. [2011-II] 2. National Crime Record Bureau is the nodal agency mandated to implement the network in all the states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2 Q112. Which of the following changes were brought in Nepal after the end of monarchy? 1. The Singha Durbar (Lion Palace) has become official seat of Government of Nepal. 2. Narayanhity Royal Palace has been turned into a public museum. 3. King's portrait on Nepalese banknotes, was replaced by the image of Pashupatinath Temple. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 Q113. In which one among the following Latin American countries, a woman has the first time won for, the presidential elections for the second term? (a) Brazil (b) Venezuela (c) Uruguay (d) Argentina Q114. Which one among the following popular cartoon characters has recently completed 50 years of creation? (a) Chota Bheem (b) Mowgli (c) 'Ultterly Butterly" Amul Girl (d) The Common Man Q115. Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2012 was given for the work on

MockTime.com (a) G-protein coupled receptors (b) human stem cell cloning (c) antimalarial vaccine (d) neurotransmitters Q116. Who among the following was selected for the prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for peace, disarmament and development, 2012? (a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (b) Ela Bhatt (c) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (d) Sheikh Hasina Q117. Well known film 'Chittagong', directed by Bedabrata Pain, is mainly based on the life of (a) Subodh Roy (b) Binod Bihari Chowdhury (c) Preetilata Wadedar (d) Ganesh Ghosh Q118. Rachel Carson's famous book, Silent Spring refers to (a) geology of terrain where river originates (b) ecology and degradation of a hot spring due to excessive tourism (c) biodiversity of an unknown terrain rich in flora and fauna (d) the death of songbirds due to eating insects poisoned with pesticides Q119. Novak Diokovic, who won the Men's Wimbledon Tennis Open Tournament 2014, is from (a) Serbia (b) Spain (c) Switzerland (d) England Q120. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana? 1. Under the scheme, Centre will provide? 10 crore each for every State and Union Territory of the country for the development of various facilities for the tribals. HINTS & SOLUTIONS 2. The scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Scheduled Tribes and other Social Groups. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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1. c 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. b 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. D 62. d 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. c 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. b 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. c 81. b 82. b 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. c 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. c 99. d 100. a 101. b 102. c 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. b 107. d 108. d 109. b 110. d 111. c 112. b 113. d 114. c 115. a 116. a 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. c 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Baking soda has sodium bicarbonate as the chief constituent. It decomposes on heating giving carbon dioxide. This causes dough, cakes, biscuits etc. to expand and become light. 6. Heavy water (D2O) is used in nuclear reactor as a moderator. The deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen. Its atomic mass is2. Hence its molecular weight is20u (2 +18). 7. 2,4-D (2,4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) is used to destroy weeds. 8. Substances like graphite and heavy water are used as moderator to slow down the speed of neutrons. Cd or B are used as control rods to control rate of fission by absorbing neutrons. Coolant like heavy water or molten sodium is used to carry away the heat. 9. On mixing with water, plaster of Paris hardens because it takes up the water of crystallisation again and thus, converts back into the dihydrate i.e., gypsum.42242 Gypsum Plaster of Paris11 CaSO. H O1 H O CaSO .2H O22 + ® 10. Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition as they are converted into free fatty acid which form a scum. 11. Hypochlorous acid and chlorine on photochemical decomposition gives nascent chlorine which further deplete ozone layer Hv HOCl(g) OH(g) C l(g) · · ¾¾¾® + Hv Cl (g)2C l(g)2 · ¾¾¾® The following reaction display how Cl atoms have an ozone destrry cycle. CF Cl CF Cl Cl222 · ¾¾® + · Cl O ClO O32 · · + ¾¾® +222ClO O2Cl2O · · + ¾¾® +

MockTime.com 12. Oil become rancid due to oxidation oil contains fatty acid which react in presence of oxygen and become rancid. Rancid oil is a major source of destructive free radicals in our diet. 13. There are about seven nutrients essential to plant growth and health that are only needed in very small quantities. These are Boron ,Chlorine, Copper, Iron, Manganese, Molybdenum and Zinc. 14. 15. 16. 17. X-rays cannot be deflected by magnetic field as they consists of no charge. X-rays and UV rays are electromagnetic wave, so they move with same velocity in vacuum i.e. 3 × 108 m/s. 18. As we know, F = ma or a = F m \ a = 1N 1kg = 1 m/s2 19. Transformer is an appliance that can increase or decrease voltage. 20. A rectifier is used to convert AC voltage into DC voltage and invertor converts DC voltage into AC voltage. 21. The light wave with shortest wavelength i.e. violet refracts the least. 22. Oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by sound. The microphone can then pick up the sound and convert it to an electrical signal which can be displayed on the oscilloscope. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. Article 124 (a) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that "There shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges". At present the Supreme Court consists of thirty one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges). Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The constitution without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. 30. Liaquat Ali Khan became the first Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947.

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31. The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor of Indian government. He is appointed by the President of Indiaunder Article 76 (a) of the Constitution. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. The current Attorney General is Mukul Rohatgi(14th Attorney General). 32. A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents, considered citizen of India by birth if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth. The citizenship of India is mentioned in Articles 5 to 11 (Part II). 33. Resistance movements, individually or collectively is the methods adopted by civil society. 34. Protem speaker is chosen with the agreement of the members of the Lok Sabha and legislative assembly, so that he can carry on the activities untilthe permanent speaker is chosen. Protem speaker is appointed for a limited time period. Generally in such a condition when the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been elected, but the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken place. 35. Bills that have to be passed by Special Majority and also to be ratified by not lessthan one-half of the State Legislatures. This comprises of Constitutional Amendment Bills which seek to make any change in articles relating to: · The Election of the President. · The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and the States. · The Supreme Court and the High Courts. · Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. · The representation of States in Parliament. · The provisions of Article 368 itself. 36. The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state importance. The state governments have the authority to make laws on these subjects. These subjects include police, local governments, trade, commerce and agriculture. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental authority after

MockTime.com certain powers have been delegated to other authorities. 37. The Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. No resolution for the purpose of removal of the Speaker or the Dy. Speaker shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resoluti on. 38. Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act(PESA) is a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the "Scheduled areas" which are not covered in the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources. 39. The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (both elected and nominated members). 40. Article 111 of the Indian constitution stipulates that the President shall give assent to a bill passed by both houses of the parliament or return the bill as soon as possible for reconsideration with his recommendation. 41. Three Election Commissioners in the each State shall be appointed by the Governor of the respective State from a penal of five names for each office forwarded by the Election Commission of Bharatto the provision of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 and the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, whereunder the constitution of State Election Commissions and appointment of State Election Commissioners are contemplated to superintend, direct and control the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. Election Commissioner of a State can be removed by the Full Bench of State Judicial Commission on the basis of enquiry and investigation made by a judicial committee constituted for the purpose, consisting of two Chief Justices and one Judge from different High Courts. 42. Tribal areas generally mean areas having preponderance of tribal population. However, the Constitution of India refers tribal areas within the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram, as those areas specified in Parts I, II, IIA & III of the table appended to paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule. [2007-II]

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43. 44. 45. White blood cells (WBC) bring out the function of body defence. 46. The odour of garlic is due to allyl methyl sulphide. 47. Vitamin-A-Retinol, Vitamin-B1 Thiamine, Vitamin-CAscorbic acid, VitaminE-Tocopherol. 48. 49. A milkman puts banana leaf in milkpot because leaf can make the milk basic and avoid yeast formation (fermentation). Banana leaf has tryptophan which creates basicity. 50. The deficiency of zinc can cause irritability, anger tendency and impaired immune function. 51. The small leaves possess no or very few stomata thus the loss of water by transpiration is decreased and protects the plant from dehydration. 52. The sprinkled salt dissolves in the water present on the moist skin of Earthworm and makes concentrated solution. The body fluid, being hypotonic, diffuses out and the worm dies due to osmotic shock (water lossdehydration). 53. Carbon monoxide (CO) readily gets combined with the haemoglobin of the blood causing harmful effect. 54. Stomata are minute pores that are used for gas exchange. Air containing carbon dioxide and oxygen enter the plant through these pores where it is used in photosynthesis and respiration. Also water vapour evaporates into the atmosphere through these pores by a process called transpiration. 55. An axonis also known as a nerve fibre. It is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell, or neuron that typically conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body. Each nerve is a cordlike structure that contains many axons and also called nerve fibres. Within a nerve, each axon is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called theendoneurium. 56. 57. India has already banned 25-paisa coin. Now 50-paisa is the minimum denomination coin. 58. Deflation is defined as a fall in the general price level of goods and services. It is a negative rate of inflation. It means the value of money increases rather than decreases.

MockTime.com 59. Inferior goods have a negative(less than 0) income elasticity of demand meaning that demand falls as income rises. 60. Nominal, authorized or registered capital means the sum mentioned in the capital clause of Memorandum of Association. It is the maximum amount which the company raises by issuing the shares and on which the registration fee is paid. This limit cannot be exceeded unless the Memorandum of Association is altered. 61. Motor Vehicle tax is not a source of tax revenue for the central government in India. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. The Arthasastra is a treatise on Political philosophy. The book, written in Sanskrit, discusses theories and principles of governing a state. The meaning ofArthashastrais 'Science of Polity'. It is written by Kautilya. 70. A separate Public Works Department was established by Lord Dalhousie. The main works of this department wereto construct roads, bridges and government buildings. 71. Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki was disciple of Moinuddin Chishti. His most famous disciple wasFariduddin Ganjshakar.He was a renowned Muslim Sufimystic, saint and scholar of the Chishti Order. 72. On the evening of 30 April 1908, Khudiram threw a bomb on the carriage of Kingsford but it was occupied not by Kingsford but the wife and daughter of barrister Pringle Kennedy were killed instead of Kingsford. 73. Principles of Satyagrah • Nonviolence (ahimsa) • Truth - this includes honesty, but goes beyond it to mean living fully in accord with and in devotion to that which is true • Not stealing • Chastity (brahmacharya) - this includes sexual chastity, but also the subordination of other sensual desires to the primary devotion to truth • Non-possession (not the same as poverty) • Body-labour or bread-labour • Control of the palate • Fearlessness • Equal respect for all religions • Economic strategy such as boycott of exported goods (swadeshi) 74. 75. Lord Dalhousie was keen on annexing the kingdom of Awadh. But the task

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presented certain difficulties because the Nawab of Awadh had been a British ally since the Battle of Buxar and had been most obedient to the British over the years. Lord Dalhousie hit upon the idea of alleviating the plight of the people of Awadh and accusing Nawab Wajid Ali on the ground of misgovernance and annexed his state in 1856. 76. As per the Permanent Settlement system, the Zamindars who formerly collected revenues were "recognized" as Landlords and the ownership of the Land was made hereditary. This means that now onwards there would be no auctioning. The son of Zamindar would be a Zamindar. 77. Dholavira was known for water management. 78. His charges against the company were mainly threefold. Firstly, that they strengthened the fortification around the Fort William without any intimation and approval; secondly, that they grossly abused the trade privileges granted to them by the Mughal rulers, which caused heavy loss of customs duties for the government; and thirdly, that they gave shelter to some of his officers, for example Krishnadas, son of Rajballav, who fled Dhaka after misappropriating government funds. Hence, when the East India Company started further enhancement of military preparedness at Fort William in Calcutta, Siraj asked them to stop. The Company did not heed his directives, so Siraj-ud Daulah retaliated and captured Kolkata (Shortly renamed as Alinagar) from the British in June 1756. 79. The important occasion of Chandragupta Maurya's reign was the forecast of a twelve years famine. At that time Acharya Bhadrabahu was the head of the Jain church. According to the Jain text Rajvaliya Katha, the king saw sixteen dreams. He requested Bhadrabahu to interpret the dreams. The latter explained all the dreams and according to the last one, he predicted a famine of twelve years. Chandragupta, who was a follower of Bhadrabahu, gave up his throne. He finally ended his life following the Jain fashion. 80. Above statement was made in the context of Quit India Movement by the Britishers. 81. The Tea Party was the culmination of a resistance movement throughout British America against the Tea Act, which had been passed by the British Parliament in 1773.

MockTime.com The Boston Tea Party was a political protest by the Sons of Liberty in Boston, on December 16, 1773. The demonstrators destroyed an entire shipment of tea sent by the East India Company, in defiance of the Tea Act of May 10, 1773. 82. The Theosophical Society was officially formed by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge in New York in November 1875. Allan Octavian Hume was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress. 83. Basavannawas an Indian philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet and a social reformer in Karnataka. He fought against the practice of the caste system which discriminated against people based on their birth, gender and other rituals in Hinduism. Basava usedIshtalinga, an image of the Siva Linga, to eradicate untouchability, to establish equality among all human beings and as a means to attain spiritual enlightenment. Lingayats worshipped Shiva in the form of linga universal God or Ishtalinga. 84. S.A Dange- The Socialist Muzaffar Ahmad- Navayug Ghulam Hussian- Inquilab M. Singaravelu- Labour- Kisan Gazette 85. Kerala is the largest producer of pepper in India.Kerala accounts for 97.4 per cent of the total area under the crop in the country. 86. Black holes are objects of extreme density, with such strong gravitational attraction that even light cannot escape from their grasp if it comes near enough. The term "black hole" was coined in 1967 by John Wheeler. 87. Southeast Asia is a sub region of Asia, consisting of the countries that are geographically south of China, east of India. Southeast Asia consists of two geographic regions: Maritime Southeast Asia and Mainland Southeast Asia. Mainland Southeast Asia comprises of Cambodia, Laos,Myanmar (Burma), Thailand, Vietnam, and West Malaysia. These countries are culturally closer to India but ethnically closer to China. Currently, there is around 190-205 million Buddhists in Southeast Asia, making it the second largest religion in the region, after Islam. Thus, around 35 to 38% of the global Buddhist population resides in Southeast Asia. The region has been greatly influenced by the cultures and religions of India and China. 88. Rwanda is located north of the equator.

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89. The lithosphere is the solid, outer part of the Earth. The hydrosphere is the liquid water component of the Earth.An atmosphere is the mixture of gases surrounding the Earth or other celestial body.The Biosphere is the part of the earth's surface and atmosphere inhabited by livingthings. 90. Factors that influence the ocean current are rotation of the earth, air pressure and wind and ocean water density.Revolution of the earth causes seasons and time change. 91. 1. Dudwa National park - Uttar Pradesh 2. Kanha National Park- Madhya Pradesh 3. Indravati National Park - Chattisgarh 4. Bandipur National Park- Karnataka 92. Asia has large areas of inland drainage because rainfall is seasonal and scanty. 93. According to census 2011, the least population is in Lakshadweep i.e. 64,429(0.01% of total population). 94. 95. The Comoros Islands are an archipelago of four volcanic islands and several islets located in the western Indian Ocean about ten to twelve degrees south of the Equator. They lie approximately halfway between the island of Madagascar and northern Mozambique at the northern end of the Mozambique Channel. 96. 97. Dharamsala is in Himachal Pradesh.It is known worldwide for the presence of the Dalai Lama. Almora is situated in Uttarakhand. Nainital is a popular hill station also in Uttarakhand. The four famous lakes of Nainital are Bhimtal Lake,Sattal, Khurpa Tal, Naukuchia Tal.Darjeeling is situated in West Bengal. Darjeeling Himalayan Railwayis a UNESCO World Heritage Site. 98. Revolution of the earth is not associated with the generation of ocean current. 99. Mid-latitude or frontal cyclones are large travelling atmospheric cyclonic storms up to 2000 kilometres in diameter with centres of low atmospheric pressure. The jet stream plays a major role in the location of midlatitude cyclones. 100. Albedo also varies according to the angle of incidence of the Sun Raysbeing higher for slating rays and lower for vertical or nearly vertical rays. From this we can derive that albedo will be relatively higher during early morning and late evening because at both times, Sun rays are slanting. 101. Kochi Refinery was set up on 27th April, 1963. Koyali Refinery was built with Soviet

MockTime.com assistance and went on stream in October, 1965. Panipat Refinery was set up in 1998 at Baholi Village in Distt. Panipat, Haryana. Mathura Refinery was commissioned in January, 1982. 102. North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter. 103. In 1985, Borlaug met with the chief executive of General Foods Corporation, James Fergusen. Norman Borlaug presented his long standing desire for the establishment of a major prize for agriculture. The idea of a prize was met favourably by the Senior General Foods Management, but they expanded the scope of the prize to include all of the links of the food chain - from farm to table. General Foods Corporation organized a prize management structure and in 1986 announced the founding of the General Foods World Food Prize. 104. 105. In 2004, Admiral Gorshkov was sold to India for conversion into a STOBAR carrier now named INS Vikramaditya. 106. 107. 108. The plotter is a computer printer for printing vector graphics. 109. 110. Phalcon is an Airborne early warning and control (AEW&C) active electronically scanned array radar system developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) and Elta Electronics Industries of Israel. Its primary objective is to provide intelligence to maintain air superiority and conduct surveillance. It was induced in the Indian Air Force in 2009. 111. CCTNS aims at creating a comprehensive and integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing through adopting of principle of eGovernance and creation of a nationwide networking infrastructure for evolution of ITenabled state-of-theart tracking system around 'Investigation of crime and detection of criminals'. The objectives of CCTNS are as follows: · Provide the Investigating Officers of the Civil Police with tools, technology and information to facilitate investigation of crime and detection of criminals. · Facilitate Interaction and sharing of Information among Police Stations, Districts, State/UT headquarters and other Police Agencies. 112. Between 1945 and 2007, Nepalese bank notes were issued with the portraits of four different kings. Starting in October 2007 the

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king's portrait was replaced by Mount Everest on all notes which have been issued since. 113. Argentina held national presidential and legislative elections on 23 October 2011. Incumbent president Cristina Fernandez de Kirchner secured a second term in office after the Front for Victory won just over half of the seats in the National Congress. Fernandez has deepened the policies started in 2003 by her husband and predecessor as president, Nestor Kirchner, whose death last year played a key role in reversing her political fortunes. 114. 115. Robert Lefkowitz and Brian Kobilka were chosen for Noble Prize 2012 for studies of G-protein-coupled receptors in chemistry. 116. Ellen Johnson Sirleaf was chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for peace, disarmament and development 2012. She is the 24th and current President of Liberia. Sirleaf was also awarded the 2011 Nobel Peace Prize, jointly with Leymah Gbowee of Liberia and Tawakel Karman of Yemen. 117. 118. Rachel Carson's book 'Silent Spring' refers to the death of song birds due to eating insects poisoned with pesticides. 119. Novak Djokovic is a Serbian professional tennis player. 120. Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs on 28 October 2014 launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) for welfare of Tribal people and particularly to lift human development indices of tribal people. Under the scheme, Union Government will provide 10 crore rupee for each block of the states for the development of various facilities for the Tribal people. These blocks have been selected on the recommendations of the concerned States and have very low literacy rate. The scheme was launched on pilot basis.

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CDS General Knowledge Practice Set

Section GK

Questions 120

Marks 100

Time 2 hrs

-Ve 1/3

Q1. Causes for the rapid decline of global shark populations is / are: 1. Illegal, unreported and unregulated (IUU) fishing 2. shark finning 3. Bangladesh 4. blast fishing (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1,2,3 (d) 2,3,4 Q2. Blast fishing carried out by use of explosives to stun or kill fish for easy collection, though outlawed, is still widespread in: 1.Tanzania and Indonesia 2.Bangladesh 3.North Sea and Grand Banks 4.Aegean Sea and coastal Africa (a) 1 2 (b) 3 4 (c) 1 3 (d) 1 4 Q3. Consider the following statements: 1.HIV entered the humans via infected primates which remain essential models for studying AIDS. 2.As a result of habitat loss and bush meat trade, many primate species are endangered and this will deprive chances of finding a cure for AIDS. Which is the above statements are true? (a) 1, 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q4. Consider the following statements: 1. Man made forests fires have caused the extinction of several species all over in the past. In India, in the last century, the Indian cheetah, lesser Indian Rhino, the Pink headed Duck, the Forest Owlet and the Himalayan Mountain Quail are reported to have become extinct. 2. Habitats that protect wildlife are being converted to human settlements in respect of

dams, reservoirs, croplands, grazing grounds, plantation and mining. 3.Environmental pollution and deforestation have resulted in degradation of important habitat. 4.The introduction of endemic species has affected many native species by imposing new factors in competition for food and space, predation and habitat destruction. Which of the following statements are true? (a) 1,2,3 (b) 2,3,4 (c) 1,2,3,4 (d) 1,2,4 Q5. As which one of the following, does carbon occur in its purest form in nature? (a) Carbon black (b) Graphite (c) Diamond (d) Coal Q6. The rusting of iron nail (a) decreases its weight (b) increases its weight (c) does not affect weight but iron is oxidised (d) does not affect weight but iron is reduced Q7. Some statements about the benefits of organic farming are given below. Indicate whether they are true or false using the codes given below the statements: 1. It reduces COz emission. 2. It does not lead to toxic effect. 3. It improves the water-retention capacity of the soil. Codes (a) 123 False True False (b) 123 True False False (c) 123 False True True (d) 123 False True True Q8. When items or jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin film of gold is deposited by (a) cooling to below0°C (b) heating above100°C (c) passing an electric current (d) just keeping it for10 min Q9. Statement I: All liquids are conductors of electricity. Statement II: Under the condition of low pressure and high voltage, liquids can be made conducting.

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(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Q10. In an atomic explosion, release of large amount of energy is due to conversion of (a) chemical energy into nuclear energy (b) nuclear energy into heat (c) mass into energy (d) chemical energy into heat DIRECTIONS (Q. No.97): The following question consist of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to this question using the codes given below. Q11. Which element forms the highest number of compounds in the periodic table? (a) Carbon (b) Oxygen (c) Silicon (d) Sulphur Q12. Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing industry, is used for the production of (a) glass (b) paper (c) rubber (d) cement Q13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Air Pollutant) (Effect) A. Chlorofluorocarbon1. Acid rain B. Sulphur dioxide2. Depletion in ozone layer in the atmosphere C. Lead compound3. Harmful for human nervous system D. Carbon dioxide4. Topmost contribution to greenhouse effect Code: A B C D (a) 4312 (b) 4132 (c) 2134 (d) 2314 Q14. The phenomenon in which gel contracts is called

MockTime.com 1.suspension 2.syneresis 3.weeping 4.stenosis The correct term(s) is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only Q15. Electroplating may be carried out for 1. preservation 2.decoration 3.protection from corrosion. The correct statement(s) is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Q16. Cll-L-methylmethionine is used for (a) brain tumour and parathyroid imaging (b) stomach analysis (c) bone imaging (d) live imaging Q17. Which one of the following is the permissible level of noise in a silent zone at day time? (a) 50 dB (b) 60 dB (c) 65 dB (d) 75 dB Q18. An athlete diving off a high springboard can perform a variety of exercises in the air before entering the water below. Which one of the following parameters will remain constant during the fall? (a) The athlete's linear momentum (b) The athlete's moment of inertia (c) The athlete's kinetic energy (d) The athlete's angular momentum Q19. A body has a mass of 6 kg on the Earth; when measured on the Moon, its mass would be (a) nearly 1 kg (b) less than 1 kg (c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg

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Q20. Statement I: Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it. Statement II: Pushi ng increases the apparent weight and hence the force of friction. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q21. Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational forces come under the category of (a) non-contact forces (b) contact forces (c) frictional forces (d) non-frictional forces Q22. The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom, as suggested by Bohr; is (a) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit (b) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 32 electrons in the M-orbit (c) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit (d) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 16 electrons in the M-orbit Q23. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of (a) Controlled fission reaction (b) Uncontrolled fission reaction (c) Controlled fusion reaction (d) Uncontrolled fusion reaction Q24. Assertion: On the front side of an ambulance, the letters are usually written as ECNALUBMA, Reason: Images formed in mirrors are laterally inverted (a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A (b) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A (c) A is right and R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is right Q25. Consider the following statements: 1: In our houses, the current in A.C. electricity line changes direction sixty times per second. 2.The frequency of alternating voltage applied is 60 Hz, Which of the above statements is/are true? (a) Both (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only

MockTime.com (d) 2 only Q26. Consider the following statements: 1.If a person looks at a coin which is in a bucket of water, the coin will appear to be closer than it really is. 2.If a person under water looks at a coin above the water surface, the coin will appear to be at a higher level than it really is Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 alone (c) 2 alone (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q27. Consider the following statements regarding the earthing pin in a three-pin plug: 1.It is longer than the other two to insure that the gadget is earthed first 2.It is thicker so that even by mistake it cannot be inserted in the live hole of the socket 3.It is thicker and longer so that its resistance is considerably less than that of the other pins Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1,2 (b) 1,3 (c) 2,3 (d) 1,2,3 Q28. Television viewers using dish antenna to receive satellite (DTH) signals do not receive signals during rain, because: (1)Their antennas are smart (2)Rain droplets absorb the energy of radio waves (3)Rain droplets disperse the energy of radio waves from their original direction. Which of the above statement/statements is /are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 V (d) All three Q29. Consider the following statements 1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President of India, he performs simultaneously the functions of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances at any time except when both

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Houses of Parliament are in session. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q30. Consider the following statements 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q31. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India? (a) 1965 (b) 1976 (c) 1979 (d) 1982 Q32. Who among the following was elected President of India unopposed? (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr S Radhakrishnan (c) Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (d) K R Narayanan Q33. DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos.): The following questions are based on the following passage. Civil society has become the leitmotif of movements struggling to free themselves from unresponsive and often tyrannical post colonial elites. If the first wave of liberation took place along with decolonisation, the second wave comes up against those very elites who had taken power after decolonisation. I see the beginning of an authentic civil society in the voice of those outside the ambit of norms laid down by the state-ecology, gender, class-in the resistance of those who refuse to let the state site its projects wherever it places, in the voice of those who reject corrupt elites in the political passions of those whose nerves are not numbed by consumer capitalism, in the letters to the newspapers, in oral communication. These are people who do not opt out of civil society, but who demand that

MockTime.com the state deliver what it has promised in the Constitution and the law, who demand State accountability, who expand the sphere of rights to encompass those which has arisen out of the struggles of the people. 80. W hat does the author mean by 'authentic civil society'? (a) People who have lost faith in parliamentary system (b) Citizens who are not corrupt but do not vote (c) Citizens who passionately advocate the cleansing of institutional malpractice and societal injustices through non parliamentary methods (d) Activists who want moral accountability and judicial redress of all wrong doings in society Q34. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to (a) treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India (b) disputes between the Government of India and one or more States (c) disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy (d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the Constitution Q35. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of (a) six years (b) during the pleasure of the President (c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier (d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier Q36. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party? (a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political parties involve larger number of people (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do (c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political parties do (d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues Q37. Match the following List I (Act) List II (Feature)

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A. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 Introduction of provincial autonomy B. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 - Indian Introduction of the principle of election C. The Government of India -Act, 1919 Introduction of diarchy in provinces D. The Government of India Act, 1935 Introduction of separate electorate for the Muslims Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Q38. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the functioning of local governance institutions more transparent and accountable? 1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over the distribution of public resources. 2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and where resources should be spent. 3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to important decision-making venues. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q39. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India. [2013II] 1. Sovereign democratic republic. 2. Socialism and secularism. 3. Capitalism and free trade. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Q40. Which one among the following was not a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946? (a) The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on the democratic principle of population strength (b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States (c) All the members of the Constituent Assembly were to be indians

MockTime.com (d) British Goverment was to supervise the affairs of the Constituent Assembly Q41. Which of I the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct? (a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States (b) The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State (c) Every State in India has separate High Court (d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side Q42. Consider the following statements: 1.National Human Rights Commission of India can enquire into complaints relating to fake encounters 2.Its reviews on acts of terrorism have been challenged in the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q43. Which of the following programme was launched for the welfare of minorities in 2006 (a) Prime Minister‘s New 15-Point (b) Prime Minister‘s New 20-Point (c) Prime Minister‘s New 10-Point (d) Prime Minister‘s New 5-Point Q44. One of the following is not the function of the municipalities under 74th Amendment (a) Construction of buildings (b) Economic and social planning (c) Water supply (d) Fisheries Q45. Match the following List I (Disease) - List II (Part of Human Body Affected) A. Conjunctivities -1.Eyes B. Dermatitis -2. Joints C. Gout -3.Skin D. M eningitis -4.Spinal cord Codes A B C D (a) 2413 (b) 1324 (c) 2314

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(d) 1423

(d) plasma

Q46. Which of the following plants is not capable of manufacturing its own food? (a) Algae (b) Mushroom (c) Carrot (d) Cabbage

Q54. Which of the following does not possess a specialised conducting tissue for transport of water and other substances in plants? (a) Marchantia (b) Marsilea (c) Cycas (d) Fern

Q47. Which one of the following is considered as the drug of last resort for human beings? (a) Penicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Chloramphenicol (d) Streptomycin Q48. Primary source of vitamin-D for human beings is (a) citrus fruits (b) green vegetables (c) yeast (d) sun

Q55. Consider the following Enzymes and protein can be corelated with each other in the following ways 1.All proteins are enzyme. 2. All enzymes are protein. 3.All enzymes are not protein. 4.All proteins are not enzyme. Which of the above are correct? (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and4 (c) 1,2 and3 (d) 2,3 and4

Q49. Which one of the following is not biodegradable? (a) Woollen mat (b) Silver foil (c) Leather bag (d) Jute basket

Q56. Which one of the following is not an insect borne disease? (a) Beri-beri (b) Kala-azar (c) Malaria (d) Plague

Q50. What is the most conspicuous salient feature of people with 'Progeria'? (a) More hair on body (b) Less immunity to opportunistic infections (c) Faster rate of ageing (d) Surfer from infertility

Q57. A recent survey (by Bloomberg) shows that the USA has fallen behind emerging markets in Brazil, China and India as the preferred place to invest. Why is it so? 1. Unstable economic situation of the USA which the global investors feel not likely to improve in the near future. 2. Global investors are finding Brazil, China and India to be actually more amenable to foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only 1 (b) only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q51. Bats can fly in dark because they (a) have strong wings (b) have sharp eyes (c) produce ultrasonic waves (d) are nocturnal Q52. It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial quantity of calcium through urine during space flight. This is due to (a) hyper gravity (b) microgravtty (c) intake of dehydrated food tablet (d) low temperature ip cosmos Q53. Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to the presence of (a) haemoglobin (b) heparin (c) fibrin

Q58. The lower growth of coal production in India during 2011- 2012 was primarily due to 1. environmental restrictions. 2. non-availability of forestry clearance. 3. poor law and order situation in coal producing states. 4. excessive rainfall in coal mining areas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1,2, 3 and 4

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(b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Q59. The average fixed cost curve will always be (a) a rectangular hyperbola (b) a downward sloping convex to the origin curve (c) a downward sloping straight line (d) a U-shaped curve Q60. 'Inclusive growth' is a phrase used in India's 1. 9th Plan 2. 10th Plan 3. 11th Plan 4. 12th Plan Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4 Q61. Which of the following does not form part of current account of Balance of Payments? (a) Export and import of goods (b) Export and import of services (c) Income receipts and payments (d) Capital receipts and payments Q62. The agency charged with the responsibility of buffer stocking is: (a) Food Corporation of India (b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (c) National Cooperative Union of India (d) Central Warehousing Corporation of India62 Economic and Social Development Q63. Which of the following statements is not correct in relation to International Monetary Fund? 1.India is a founder member of the IMF. 2.IMF conducts regular review of India‘s economic status under Article IV. 3.Indias quota in the IMF is more than 2 per cent. 4.Finance Minister is ex-officio Governor of the IMF. (a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 4

MockTime.com Q64. Central Public Sector Enterprises with good record of performance have been conferred greater autonomy under the Navaratna Scheme. Which of the following is not one of the categories? (a) Maharashtra (b) Navratna (c) Microratna (d) Miniratna Q65. The World Population Day is observed on July 11, in commemoration of that day in 1987 when the five billionth inhabitant of the world was supposed to have been born. According to the UNFPA, the day of the seven billion would be: (a) July 11,2009 (b) August 15, 2012 (c) September 22, 2015 (d) October 31, 2011 Q66. According to UNFPA projections, the world population Will touch 10 billion by: (a) 2100 (b) 2050 (c) 2016 (d) 2085 Q67. Among the 18 hot spots of biodiversity in the world, the two which fall in India are: (a) Eastem Himalayas and Western Ghats (b) Kashmir and Sunderbans (c) Western Ghats and Andaman Islands (d) Sunderbans and Nicobar Q68. It is important to measure the level of poverty for various reasons. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for measuring poverty? (a) Economic and social policies can be formulated only if accurate picture of poverty is available (b) Political parties can effectively canvas support during elections if data on poor are made available. (c) Targeting of poor by area and region is possible only if statistics of poor by region, class etc exist (d) Periodic measurement of data on poverty helps measure the impact of policies and programmes meant for poverty reduction Q69. Arrange the following in chronological order 1. Partition of Bengal

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2. Chauri-Chaura Incident 3. First Round Table Conference Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3

Q70. Under which one of the following systems of assessment, the British Government collected revenue directly from the farmers? (a) Zamindari (b) Ryotwari (c) Annawari (d) Desaiwari Q71. Which of the following statements on Gandhian movements is not correct? (a) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of mass movement (b) Gandhian movements were non-violent in nature (c) In Gandhian movements, leadership had no role (d) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of passive resistance Q72. The Nehru-Liaquat Pact between India and Pakistan was signed in 1950 to resolve the issue of (a) the protection of minorities (b) the accession of princely states (c) the border disputes (d) the problem of refugees Q73. Which one among the following prompted Rabindranath Tagore to surrender his title of ‗Sir‘? (a) The passing of the Rowlatt Act (b) The passing of the Act of 1919 (c) To support Mahatma Gandhi‘s Satyagraha Movement (d) To protest against the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh and the imposition of martial law in Punjab Q74. Which one among the following statements regarding the social and religious reform ideas of Raja Rammohan Roy is not correct?

MockTime.com (a) His efforts led to the formation of Brahmo Samaj in 1828 (b) He considered different religions as embodiments of universal theism (c) His Vedantic monism was strengthened after 1815 since an exposure to Christian unitarianism (d) He paid attention exclusively to the problems/issues of the emerging middle class of India Q75. Which one among the following is correct about the Doctrine of Lapse? (a) It did not allow the Indian rulers to adopt any heir (b) It did not allow an adopted heir to rule a state after the death of the ruler (c) It made the annexation of Indian State compulsory after the death of a ruler (d) It made the annexation of Indian State compulsory if the adoption of heir had not been approved by the British authorities Q76. Which among the following was the most immediate factor for the spread of Swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods during the first decade of the last century? (a) Curzon‘s design to curtail the sphere of local selfgovernment (b) Curzon‘s attempt to control the universities (c) Curzon‘s partition of Bengal (d) Curzon‘s plan to curb the growing popularity of the Indian National Congress Q77. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the Kingdoms of Harsrhavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma? (a) I–Tsing (b) Fa–Hien (c) Hiuen Tsang (d) Sun Shuyun Q78. Which one among the following correctly describes Gandhiji‘s attitude towards the Swarajist leaders? (a) He was not opposed to their entry into council (b) He had full trust in their bona fides and considered them most valued and respected leaders (c) He was not in favour of maintaining warm personal relations with them

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(d) He was neutral to government‘s offensive against the Swarajists and did not defend them Q79. Statement I: Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics called Nirgranthas. Statement II: The sect was founded 200 years earlier by Parsva. (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Q80. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a complex system. Its efficient functioning depended upon 1. the practice of offering the title of ‗Mansabdar‘ to military personnel only. 2. proper functioning of the dagh (branding) system. 3. proper functioning of the jagirdari system. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Q81. Which one among the following statements about Civil Disobedience Movement is correct? (a) It started with Gandhiji‘s march to Champaran (b) Under Gandhi–lrwin agreement Congress agreed to give up Civil Disobedience Movement (c) The British Government was quite soft towards the movement from the beginning (d) There was no violence during the movement Q82. Which among the following was the reason of the resignations of the Indian Ministers in all the provinces in the year 1939? (a) The Governors refused to act as constitutional heads (b) The Centre did not provide the required financial help to provinces

MockTime.com (c) The Governor-General converted Indian administration from federal to unitary one because of the beginning of the World War II (d) India was declared a party to the World War II without the consent of the provincial government Q83. Statement II: Ram Mohan Roy in his famous work Gift to Monotheism put forward weighty arguments against belief in many Gods and for the worship of a single God. Statement II: Ram Mohan Roy in his Precepts of Jesus tried to separate the moral and philosophic message of the New Testament. (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Q84. Which of the following was/were connected primarily to the communist ideology? 1. Kirti Kisan Party 2. Labour Swaraj Party Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q85. The shaded area in the map given below is the major producer of which one of the following? (a) Cotton (b) Groundnut (c) Wheat (d) Mustard Q86. Because of which one of the following factors, clouds do not precipitate in deserts? (a) Low pressure (b) Low humidity (c) High wind velocity (d) High temperature DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 101-104): The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion ' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and

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select the correct answers to these questions using the codes given below. Q87. Consider the following statements 1.In the month of July, the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is located in the Indo Gangetic plain. 2. Northen Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q88. Consider the following statements 1.Suez Canal is an important link between developed countries and developing countries. 2. It joins the Mediterranean Sea with the Gulf of Suez 3. It is not a sea level canal. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 Q89. Bolivar is the monetary unit of (a) Venezuela (b) Brazil (c) Bolivia (d) Belarus Q90. Consider the following statements 1.A hurricane acquires its spin from the coriolis effect. 2. The diameter of the hurricane decreases as it moves away from low latitudes. 3. The diameter of a hurricane is never below 150 km. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Q91. Match the following List II (Characteristic Vegetation) List I (Region) A. Selvas - 1. Mosses and Lichens B. Savanas - 2. Epiphytes C. Tundra - 3. Tropophytes D. Monsoon lands - 4. Grasses and trees Codes A B C D A B C D

MockTime.com (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 181-182): The following questions consist of two statements, Stastement I and Statement II. you are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the code given below. Q92. The Earth revolves around the Sun in an elliptical path and the Sun is located at one focus of the ellipse. Imagine a situation in which the Earth goes around the Sun on a circular path. Which one among the following would result in under that situation? (a) It would not make and difference (b) Difference between seasons will be reduced (c) The earth would become very hot (d) The Earth would become very cold Q93. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct? 1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide content. 2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and potash. 3. They are porous and have friable structure. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q94. Renewable energy can be obtained from (a) Fossils (b) Radioactive elements (c) Biomass (d) Natural gas Q95. Logically, what does a continually rising air pressure indicate? (a) Advent of unsettled and cloudy weather (b) Advent of a cyclone (c) Fine and settled weather (d) Fire and unsettled weather Q96. Which of the following are responsible for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India? 1. Low per capita income. 2. Rapid rate of increase of population. 3. Practice of dividing land equally among the heirs.

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4. Use of traditional techniques Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Q97. Arrange the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra from West to East. 1. Lohit 2. Dibang 3. Subansiri 4. Tista Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) 3, 4. 2. 1 (d) 2, 4, 3. 1 Q98. The highest of all spring tides occurs at the time of (a) full or new moon in association with winter solstice (b) full or new moon in association with equinox (c) full or new moon in association with summer solstice (d) winter as well as summer solstices Q99. Mid-latitude cyclones (a) usually move across North-America from East to West (b) are generally found only over the ocean (c) generally bring clear skis and little precipitation (d) are formed in regions of strong temperature contrasts Q100. Why is Himalayan region poor in mineral resources? (a) Himalayan region is made up of crystalline rocks (b) Displacement of rock strata has disturbed the arrangement of rocks and made it complex. (c) The climatic conditions are not suitable for exploration of minerals (d) The rugged terrain makes exploration of minerals difficult and costly Q101. Which one of the following is depositional landform? (a) Stalagmite (b) Lapis (c) Sinkhole

MockTime.com (d) Cave Q102. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Phenomenon) (Date) A. Summer solstice -1. 21st June B. Winter solstice -2. 22nd December C. Vernal Equinox -3. 23rd September D. Autumnal - 4. 21st March Equinox Code: A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Q103. Billy Doctxove, a member of the Elite Panel of ICC umpires belongs to which one of the following countries? (a) South Africa (b) West Indies (c) Australia (d) New Zealand Q104. Who among the following is the first man (after Bjorn Borg in 1990) to win the French Open and Wimbledon Singles Title back to back? (a) Rafael Nadal (b) Roger Rederer (c) John McEnroe (d) Daniel Nestor Q105. Which one of the following committees was constituted by Ministry of Human Resource Development Government of India, as per the direction of the Supreme Court of India to frame guidelines on student union election in colleges/ universities? (a) Moily Committee (b) Lyngdoh Committee (c) Sachar Committee (d) Ganguly Committee Q106. Consider the following statement about Aruna Roy. 1. She was one of the prominent leaders of the right to information movement, which eventually led to the enactment of Right to Information Act in 2005. 2. She was the founder of the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan. [2009-II] 3. She served as a civil servant in the Indian Administrative Service. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2

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(c) Only 1 (d) All of these Q107. Consider the following paragraph and identify the person referred to in it A Nobel Laureate in Literature, she is a member of Romania's ethnic german minority who was prosecuted for her critical depictions of life 'Behind the Iron Curtain'. She made her debut in 1982 with a collection of short stories entitled 'Niederungen' which depicted the harsh life in a small, German-speaking village in Romania. This book was censored by the Communist Government. (a) Doris Lessing (b) Gunter Grass (c) Herta Mueller (d) Imre Kertesz Q108. In the year 2009, Japan launched its first satellite to monitor greenhouse gases. What is the name of the satellite? (a) Tadami (b) Yasushi (c) Kuoto (d) Ibuki Q109. Consider the following statements regarding Sukhoi PAK FA T-50 aircraft. 1. It is a joint venture of USA and India. 2. It is a fifth generation fighter aircraft. 3. It has the ability to super cruise or operate at speeds beyond the sound. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q110. In August 2010, Russian President hosted a summit of four nations to discuss about the menace of terrorism and narcotics at the Black Sea Resort Sochi. The countries which attended were (a) Brazil, Russia, India and China (b) Russia, Afghanistan, India and Pakistan (c) Russia, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and Afghanistan (d) Russia, Afghanistan. Pakistan and Tajikistan Q111. Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations Peacekeeping Force is/are correct? 1. The first peacekeeping force was sent to Egypt.

MockTime.com 2. Peacekeeping force is accountable to the Security Council. 3. First women peacekeeping force was sent by India to Liberia. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 Q112. On 15th March, 2011, foreign ministers of G-8 nations failed to reach an agreement on military action against Libya because. 1. Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions sought by Britain and France. 2. French attempt for a no-fly zone could not reach consensus. 3. United Nations has been non-supportive for any kind of action against Libya. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only l Q113. Which one among the following statements iscorrect with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? (a) It is a large military helicopter (b) It is a large military transport aircraft (c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun (d) it is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014 Q114. Farkhor Air Base, operated by the Indian Air Force, is situated in which one among the following countries? (a) Kazakhstan (b) Uzbekistan (c) Afghanistan (d) Tajikistan Q115. Some atheists, skeptics and nonbelievers called to celebrate '25th December' as Newtonmas Day instead of observing 'Christmas Day'. The reason they propose that (a) both Isaac Newton and Jesus Christ were great (b) Isaac Newton was born on 25th December (c) 'Skeptic Society' was founded on 25th December (d) Isaac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity

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Q116. Consider the following statements about Malala Yousafzai 1. In November, 2012, she was awarded with the Bravery Award by the World Peace and Prosperity Foundation. 2. The United Nations declared 10th November as 'Malala Day' in honour of her contribution in the field of girls' education. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q117. Consider the following statements 1. Rafael Nadal won Men's Singles French Open Tennis Tournament-2013, defeating Spanish compatriot David Ferrer. 2. This is Nadal's maiden French Open title. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q118. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Rim Association 1. The 13th Council of Ministers meeting of the Association was held in November 2013 in Perth. 2. India was elected Chair of the Association from 2013 to Miscellaneous C-173 2015. 3. There are twenty member nations in the Association. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Q119. Which of the following statements about Marrakesh Treaty is/ are correct? 1. The main goal of the treaty is to create a set of mandatory limitations and exceptions for the benefits of the blind and visually impaired. 2. India has ratified the treaty. 3. The treaty has come into force from July 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only

MockTime.com (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q120. Which of the following statements with regard to the proposed Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is/are correct? 1. India is one of the founding members of the Bank. 2. The Bank is to be headquartered in Shanghai. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. d 26. a 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. c 52. b 53. b 54. a 55. a 56. a 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. C 61. D 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. d 75. d 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. d 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. b 104. b 105. b 106. d 107. c 108. d 109. b 110. d 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. d 115. b 116. a 117. a 118. c 119. b 120. a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Carbon occurs in its purest form of carbon black in nature. 6. The rusting of iron nail takes place in the presence of air (oxygen) and water (moisture). It increases the weight of iron nail due to the formation of rust.4Fe +3O2 + xH2O ®232 Rust2Fe O. H O x 7. Organic farming is the form of agriculture that relies on crop rotation, green manure, compost, biological pest control and mechanical cultivation to maintain soil productivity and control pests. It does not reduce CO2 emission. It does not lead to toxic effect. It improves the water-retention capacity of the soil. 8. The process of depositing a thin layer of one metal over the surface of other metal by the process of electrolysis is known as electroplating. Hence, when items or jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a

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thin film of gold is deposited by passing an electric current. 9. All liquids are not conductors of electricity. Only the liquids which contain free ions or electrons, can conduct electricity. 10. 11. Carbon (C) forms a large number of compounds due to its two characteristics properties. (i) Catenation (ability to link with other carbon atoms) (ii) Tetra valency (valency of carbon is4) 12. Bagasse is sugarcane fibre waste left after juice extraction.It is used for the production of paper. 13. The correct match is as follows: Chloroflurocarbon- Depletion in ozone layer in the atmosphere Sulphur dioxide- Acid rain Lead compound- Harmful for human nervous system Carbon dioxide- Topmost contribution to greenhouse effect 14. 15. 16. 17. The permissible level is 60 dB. 18. When a athlete jumps from the spring board, he curls his body by rolling his arms and legs in. By doing so, he decreases moment of inertia of his body and hence angular speed increases to conserve the angular momentum, as I1 w1 = I2 w2 = constant. 19. Mass of an object does not change when an objects location changes. It is the weight of the body (w = mg) which changes with value of 'g' at that place. 20. It is easier to move any body by pulling it than by pushing it. A body starts to move when the applied force is more than the frictional force. This frictional force is proportional to the weight of the body under which it acts. When the lawn roller is pushed by the force (F), the vertical component of the pushing force now increases the weight (w = mg) of the roller which inturn results i n increase of normal reaction and hence the friction is more. 21. All of these forces doesn‘t need any physical contact to exist hence, non -contact forces. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

MockTime.com 29. Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while acting as president or discharging the functions of president, the Vice President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya sabha. Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament. 30. Article 46 deals with Promotion of educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. It does not provide free legal aid to them. According to Article 14, "the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India". 31. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They were Originally ten in number, but by the 86th Amendment in 2002 they were increased to eleven. 32. Dr.Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the sixth President of India. After the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in office,Reddy was elected unopposed. He was only President to be elected thus, after being unanimously supported by all political parties including the opposition Congress party. He was elected president on 21 July 1977. 33. According to author, authentic civil society means "Activists who want moral accountability and juridical redress of all wrongdoing in society. 34. The original jurisdiction of supreme court of India extends to all cases between the Government of India and the States of India or between Government of India and states on side and one or more states on other side or cases between different states. 35. The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 36. Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do. Political parties exist to gain power over governmental policy by winning elections for political office. Interest groups do not necessarily have their members run for office and they vote in a

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nonpartisan way, supporting candidates who promote their point of view. 37. The Indian Council Act 1892Introduction of the principle of election The Indian Council Act 1909- Introduction of separate electorate for the Muslims The government of India act 1919- Introduction of diarchy in provinces The government of India Act 1935- Introduction of provincial autonomy. 38. Participatory Budgeting is a democratic process of deliberation by citizens, civic officials and elected representatives on the issues that need attention and collectively arriving at decisions that would directly be included in the budget of the government. Participatory budgeting empowers the citizens to present their demands and priorities for improvement and influence through discussions and negotiations the budget allocations made by their municipalities. It is an opportunity in which the common citizens can decide about the allocation and distribution of public expenditure in their areas or regions. 39. According to the preamble of Indian Constitution, India is aSovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic republic. Capitalism and free trade is not enshrined in the preamble of the Indian constitution. 40. The Cabinet mission arrived on March 24, 1946. The objective of this mission was to: · Devise a machinery to draw up the constitution of Independent India. · Make arrangements for interim Government. · Thus the mission was like a declaration of India's independence. · British Government was to supervise the affairs of the constituent Assembly, was not the aim of the mission. 41. Every state in India does not have a separate High Court .The constitution provides that parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more states and a Union Territory. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. Mushrooms are not able to manufacture their own food. A mushroom is the fleshy, spores having fruiting body of fungi. It is heterotrophi c. 47. Chloramphenicol affects bacteria which are resistant to all other medicine.

MockTime.com Chloramphenicol is a prototypical broad spectrum bacteria killing drug. 48. Sun is the primary source of vitaminD. The body can synthesise vitamin-D itself in presence of sunlight. Vitamin-D is soluble in fat and assists the body to absorb calcium. Its deficiency can cause osteoporosis. 49. Silver foil is manufactured from metal that is non biodegrable. Woollen mat, leather bag and jute basket are biodegradable because they are manufactured from natural materials. 50. Progeria (promeans prior; geriameans ageing) causes early ageing and the death of child occurs at the age of12-13 years. It is a progressive genetic disease and created due to the mutation in the LMNA gene. 51. Bats can fly in dark because they create ultrasonic waves. The bats have very poor vision. It cannot see in dark. It produces ultrasonic waves striking with the obstacles present on its path. The bat receives its e cho and changes its path to protect itself from collision with any thing. 52. Exposure to microgravity in the environment of space induces astronauts to lose calcium from bones. This loss takes place due to absence of ‗Earth gravity‘ which disrupts the process of bone maintenance. This calcium is excreted out with urine. 53. Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) that prevents the blood clotting. It is applied to cure and prevent blood clots in the veins, arteries, or lungs. 54. Marchantia belongs to group bryophytes. Inbryophytes plants absorb water through general body surface and other substances also. Bryophytes lack xylem and phloem Marsilea and fern belong to group pteridophytes having xylem tissue for transport of water. Cycas belongs to gymnosperm also having xylem. 55. All enzymes are protein by composition but all proteins are not enzymes. 56. Beri-beri is not insect borne disease. It is caused by the deficiency of vitamin-B1 or thiamine. 57. According to Bloomberg LP, an American company, the economy of USA is fallen. Instead, Brazil, India, China have emerged as investor-friendly nations. 58. The lower growth of coal production in India during 2011-2012 was primarily due to environmental regulations and Off-take suffered heavily in most of the coal fields due

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to excessive rainfall in AugustSeptember 2011. 59. a Total fixed costs are constant, so the average fixed cost curve diminishes with the output. Thus, the average fixed cost curve is a rectangular hyperbola. 60. Inclusive growth is a phrase used in India for 11th (2007-2012) and 12th (2012-2017) Five year plans. 61. Capital receipts and payments do not form part of current account of Balance of Payment. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. The partition of Bangal took place on16 October 1905. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province, British India on 5 February 1922.The first Round table conference was opened officially by King George V on November 12, 1930 in London. 70. Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820. In this System, the ownership rights were handed over to the peasants. British Government collected taxes directly from the peasants. 71. Gandhi Ji was the preeminent leader of Indian independence movement in Britishruled India. He led various movements such as Champaran and Kheda Satyagraha,Khilafat movement, Noncooperation movement, Quit India Movement etc. 72. The Nehru-Liaquat pact was signed between India and Pakistan in 1950 to resolve the issues of protection of minorities. 73. Rabindranath Tagore was Asia's first Nobel Laureatewho won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his creation of Gitanjali. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre happened in Amritsaron 13 April 1919 in which Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered British, Indian Army soldiers to open fire on an unarmed gathering of men, women and children. Thousands of people were killed in this massacre. Tagore renounced the knighthood that he had received in 1915. 74. Reforms of Raja Ram Mohan Roy: • Crusaded against social evils like sati, polygamy and child marriage etc. • Demanded property inheritance rights for

MockTime.com women. • Supported induction of western learning into Indian education. He is best known for his efforts to abolish the practice ofsati, the Hindu funeral practice in which the widow was compelled to sacrifice herself on her husband's funeral pyre in some parts of the then Bengal. 75. Doctrine of lapse, in Indian history, formula devised by Lord Dalhousie, governorgeneral of India (1848- 56) , to deal with questions of succession to Hindu Indian states. According to 'Doctrine of Lapse', if any ruler of a protected state died without a natural heir, the states' authority will pass to the English East India Company. Annexation in the absence of a natural or adopted heir was enforced in the cases of Satara (1848) , Jaitpur and Sambalpur (1849) , Baghat (1850) , Chota Udaipur (1852) , Jhansi (1853) , and Nagpur (1854) . 76. The British tried to curb Bengali influence on the nationalist movement and also introduced a new form of division based on religion to create challenges for the Indian National Congress, which was slowly becoming the main opponent to British rule. 77. Hieun Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited the kingdom of Harshvardhan and Kumar Bhaskar Varma. 78. Gandhiji had full trust in their bonafides and considered them most valued and respected leaders. 79. Mahavira was not the founder and author of Jain religion but simply a reformer. This sect of the Nigranthas was an important sect at the rise of Buddhism. This may be inferred from the fact that they are frequently mentioned in the pitakas as opponents of Buddha and his disciples. This conclusion is further supported by another fact. Mankkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira divided mankind into six classes, of these the third class contained the Nigranthas. Hence, statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 80. Mansabdari was a system of army and civil services introduced by Akbar in place of the Jagirdari system. The 'Mansab' is an Arabic word meaning rank or position or status of a person. During the early reign of Akbar, the lowest grade was ten and the highest was 5000. Akbar introduced the rank of 'Zat' and 'Sawar' in the Mansabdari system. 81. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin on 5 March

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1931 before the second Round Table Conference in London.One of the proposed conditions is Discontinuation of the civil disobedience movement by the Indian National Congress. 82. At the outbreak of the World War II, the Viceroy proclaimed India's involvement without prior consultations with the main political parties. When Congress demanded an immediate transfer of power in return for cooperation of the war efforts, the British government refused. As a result Congress resigned from power in all the provinces. 83. In 1809, he wrote his famous work 'Gift to Monotheists' in Persian, in which he put forward weighty arguments against belief in many gods and for the worship of a single God. Ram Mohan Roy insisted on applying rationalism to Christianity too, particularly to the elements of blind faith in it. In 1820, he published his 'Precepts of Jesus' in which he tried to separate the moral and philosophic message of the New Testament, which he praised, from its miracle stories. 84. After Russian Revolution many left groups and trade unions were formed in India on the ideologies of Marxism or communism. Labour Swaraj Party, Congress Labour Party, KirtiKisan Party, Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan were based on communism ideology. By 1928, all these provincial parties were knitted into an all India organization named Workers and Peasants Party (WPP) . 85. The shaded area in the map is major cotton producer states in India. Cotton producing states in India are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu etc. 86. Deserts usually have a large diurnal and seasonal temperature range, with high daytime temperatures (in summer up to 45 °C or 113 °F), and low night-time temperatures (in winter down to 0 °C; 32 °F) due to extremely low humidity. Clouds does not precipitates in deserts due to low humidity. 87. The southeast trade winds in the southern hemisphere and the northeast trade winds in the northern hemisphere meet each other near the equator. The meeting place of these winds is known as the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). In the month of July, the ITCZ shifts to 20°- 25° N latitude and is located in the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the South-West monsoons blow from the

MockTime.com Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. NITCZ is the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall. 88. The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. It allows ships to travel between Europe and South Asia. 89. The bolívar fuerte is the currency of Venezuela. 90. Hurricanes begin as tropical disturbances in warm ocean waters with surface temperatures of at least 80 degrees Fahrenheit (26.5 degrees Celsius). 91. An epiphyte is a plant that grows harmlessly upon another plant (such as a tree), and derives its moisture and nutrients from the air, rain. Epiphytes provide a rich and diverse habitat for other organisms including animals, fungi, bacteria etc.Selvas is found in South America.Savanna is a rolling grassland scattered with shrubs and isolated trees, which can be found between a tropical rainforest and desert biome. Savanna is found in Africa, South America, India, and Australia.Tundra is type of biome where the tree growth is hindered by low temperatures and short growing seasons. Tundra is the coldest of all the biomes. The vegetation is composed of dwarf shrubs, sedges and grasses, mosses, and lichens. Tropophytesis a kind of plant adapted to climatic conditions in which periods of heavy rainfall alternate with periods of drought. It grows in monsoon land. 92. In the given condition, difference between seasons will be reduced. 93. Red soils are very poor in lime, humous and potash. 94. Biomass is a renewable energy resource derived from the carbonaceous waste of various human and natural activities. It can be derived from numerous sources as agricultural crops, household waste and wood etc. 95. A continually rising air pressure is an indication of fine and settled weather, and a steadily falling tendency in the barometer foretells the advent of unsettled and cloudy weather. 96. The reason for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land is: Population is growing very fast in India and practice of dividing land equally among the heirs goes on. Hence, family land is inherited by the heirs equally. Each heir has the legal right to demarcate and subdivide his inheritance.

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97. The tributaries of Brahmaputra from east to west - Tista, Subarnsiri, Lohit, and dibang. Tista is said to be the lifeline of Sikkim, the Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.Lohit River flows in Arunachal Pradesh.Dibang River flows through the northeast states of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. 98. Spring tides occur twice each lunar month all year long without regard to the season. Neap tides, which also occur twice a month happen when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other. During full or new moons-which occur when the earth, sun, and moon are nearly in alignment-average tidal ranges are slightly larger. 99. Red soils develop in a warm, temperate, wet climate under deciduous forests and have thin organic and mineral layers overlying a yellowish-brown leached layer resting on red layer made of iron oxide(ferric oxide). Red soils generally form from iron-rich sediments. They are usually poor growing soils, low in nutrients and humus and difficult to cultivate. 100. 101. Stalagmite is a onical mineral deposit, usually calcite or aragonite, built up on the floor of a cavern,formed from the dripping of mineral-rich water. 102. The correct match is as follows: Summer Solstice- 21st June Winter solstice22nd December Vernal Equinox- 21st March Autumnal Equinox- 23rd September June 21 is called the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere.In the Northern Hemisphere, the winter solstice occurs either December 21 orVernal Equinox is the time when the sun crosses the plane of the earth's equator,making night and day of approximately equal length all over the earth and occurring about MarchThe Autumn Equinox is the first day of the autumn season and occurs when the sun passes the equator moving from the northern to the southern hemisphere. It occurs on 23 September. 103. 104. 105. The Lyngdoh Committee was set up by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) in 2006 as per the direction of the Supreme Court to reform students' union elections and to get rid of money and muscle power in student politics.

MockTime.com 106. Aruna Roy is an Indian political and social activist who founded and heads the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana. She served as a civil servant in the Indian Administrative Service between 1968 and 1974. She was a leader of the Right to Information movement through National Campaign for People's Right to Information which led to the enactment of the Right to Information Act in 2005. 107. Herta Müller is a German novelist, poet, essayist and recipient of the 2009 Nobel Prize in Literature. 108. 109. The Russian Sukhoi T-50 PAK-FA stealth fighter is a fifth-generation combat aircraft such as the Lockheed Martin F-22 Raptor and F-35 Joint Strike Fighter. It has the ability to super cruise or operate at speeds beyond the sound. 110. 111. The first UN armed force was established to create a buffer between Israeli and Egyptian forces in the Sinai. The first all women contingent in peacekeeping mission, a formed Police Unit from India, was deployed in 2007 to the UN Operation in Liberia. 112. France and Britain pressed for agreement on a no-flight zone, while Germany and Russia opposed the measure . The Libyan crisis dominated the first meeting of France's Group of Eight presidency but Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions sought also by Britain. On March 17 Security Council Resolution 1973 authorized the use of "all necessary measures "short of an invasion and occupation of Libya" to protect civilians and civilian populated areas" - the first UNsanctioned combat operations since the 1991 Gulf War. 113. The 'Lockheed C-5 Galaxy' is a large military transport aircraft originally designed and built by Lockheed and now maintained and upgraded by its successor Lockheed Martin. The C-5 Galaxy has been operated by USAF since 1969. In that time, it has been used to support US military operations in all major conflicts including Vietnam, Iraq, Yugoslavia and Afghanistan. 114. Farkhor Air Base is a military air base located near the town of Farkhor in Tajikistan. It is operated by the Indian Air Force in collaboration with the Tajikistan Air Force. 115. Some atheists, sceptics, and others have referred to 25 December as Newtonmas,

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a tongue-in-cheek reference to the major Christian cultural holiday of the same date. Celebrants send cards with "Reason's Greetings!" printed inside, and exchange boxes of apples and sciencerelated items as gifts. The celebration may have had its origin in a meeting of the Newton Association at Christmas 1890 to talk, distribute gifts and share laughter and good cheer. The name Newtonmas can be attributed to the Skeptics Society, which needed an alternative name for its Christmas party. '25th December' is the birthday of Isaac Newton. 116. July 12 was declared Malala Day by United Nations. 117. This is Nadal's 8th French open Men's single title. 118. At this meeting, Australia took over as Chair of the Association from India which had been Chair since 2011. 119. Marrakesh Treaty was signed to Facilitate Access to Published Works by Visually Impaired Persons and Persons with Print Disabilities. It is signed on 28 June 2013. India ratified the treaty on 24 July 2014 and was the first country to do so. 120. In June 2014, China invited India to participate in the founding of the bank. On October 24, 2014, a signing ceremony held in Beijing formally recognized the establishment of the bank. Twentyone countries signed the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).India is one of them. The bank is headquartered in Beijing, China. Q

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